- #1
MotoPayton
- 96
- 0
Can someone explain to me why the torque due to tension is taking from the roller instead of at the end of the beam.
If you were to take it from the end of the beam you would also need to take the torque created by the bending of the cable. This is obviously more complicated.
It just doesn't seem like the way they did it should work.
If you were to take it from the end of the beam you would also need to take the torque created by the bending of the cable. This is obviously more complicated.
It just doesn't seem like the way they did it should work.