- #1
jackychenp
- 26
- 0
Hi All,
For a hydrogen atom in the field B, torque on the electron is \tau =\mu Bsin\theta =\omega_pJsin\theta => \omega_p=gqB/(2m) If we only consider orbital motion (ignore spin), then g=1. So \omega_p=qB/(2m). (It follows the steps from Feynman's lectures VII section 34-3)
For a single electron in the field, qvB=v^2m/r => \omega=qB/m. I know these two cases are different, but why the results look the same (only a factor of 2 different). Is there any connection between them, or just coincidence?
For a hydrogen atom in the field B, torque on the electron is \tau =\mu Bsin\theta =\omega_pJsin\theta => \omega_p=gqB/(2m) If we only consider orbital motion (ignore spin), then g=1. So \omega_p=qB/(2m). (It follows the steps from Feynman's lectures VII section 34-3)
For a single electron in the field, qvB=v^2m/r => \omega=qB/m. I know these two cases are different, but why the results look the same (only a factor of 2 different). Is there any connection between them, or just coincidence?
