Jeff12341234
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I need to show the intervals where the wronskian is linearly independent and linearly dependent.. I don't know how to do that.. Here's what I have:
Jeff12341234 said:So what is the next procedural step?
LCKurtz said:Did you understand Dick's reply? There is no positive length interval on which those functions are linearly dependent. Once you see that, there's nothing left to do. Unless you want to consider a single point as an interval.
[Edit] I didn't see Dick's second reply, sorry.
Dick said:That's ok. An interval consisting of a single point is also pretty uninteresting. That makes the two functions just numbers. Always linearly dependent on single point intervals no matter what the wronskian. I can't figure out whether the person that wrote the question doesn't understand wronskians or is just trying to make a 'trick' question.
Jeff12341234 said:No, I didn't understand it. I need to see some sort of visual, physical representation of what's going on. :/ It's all just made up vocabulary for made up concepts at this point. All I know is that if you can solve for x, you call it the vocabulary word, Linearly dependent. If not, you call it linearly independent.
Jeff12341234 said:So what should I write to answer part a and part b?
Jeff12341234 said:In my mind, there's no connection for either of the phrases, "linearly independent/dependent" to actual concepts. "Two functions are said to be linearly dependent on an interval if there are two constants a and b not both 0 such that a*f1(x)+b*f2(x)=0 on the whole interval." doesn't mean anything to me either. What interval? What constants?
What would help is a heavily generalized example/explanation that goes like this, "Some guy was doing ____ and he needed to know _____ so the wronskian test was invented to tell him _____ aspect about _____."
Dick said:"Some guy was solving a third order differential equation and got three solutions, say f1(x), f2(x) and f3(x). This guy knows that if the three solutions are linearly independent then ANY solution of the differential equation can be written as a*f1(x)+b*f2(x)+c*f3(x) for arbitrary constants a,b and c, and he has a general solution. If not, then he doesn't have the complete solution. So he checks the wronskian. If there is a point where the wronskian is nonzero, then he's all done. If it's identically zero, then the guy should suspect he may have missed a solution."
Jeff12341234 said:1. What's another way to say "linearly independent"? What are synonyms of the phrase? If you were making up a phrase to describe whatever linearly independent describes, what are some alternate names you would come up with for it?
2. "If there is a point where the wronskian is nonzero" what does that mean? Are you trying to say, after you set the wronskian equal to zero and solve it for x, if there are values for x the wronskian is nonzero?
3. "If it's identically zero" What does that mean?
Jeff12341234 said:2. so it's nonzero everywhere except for 0 and 2/7? If so, that's simple enough. What does that have to do with anything though? What does that actually tell me?
Jeff12341234 said:I don't have any idea how to answer your question. I have no idea how to tell if the functions are L.I. or L.D. on a certain interval. Just guessing, I plugged in 2/7 into y1 and y2. That gave me 5e^(4/7) and 16/49*e^(-10/7) ...Is that supposed to mean something?
Yea, but I don't understand how intervals come into play. I just take the functions (y1, y2, y3, etc), make them into a square matrix, run the determinant function on the square matrix, set answer equal to zero, solve for x, if x can be solved for the label "Linearly Dependent" gets written down, other wise, it's labeled L.I. I also know that for L.D. functions, the last one can be recreated using the previous functions. How that applies to anything or can be used for anything i don't know. That's all I understand so far. None of that helps me answer the question.Dick said:Why do you think that has anything to do with linear independence? The wronskian tells you something about linear independence.
Jeff12341234 said:Yea, but I don't understand how intervals come into play. I just take the functions (y1, y2, y3, etc), make them into a square matrix, run the determinant function on the square matrix, set answer equal to zero, solve for x, if x can be solved for the label "Linearly Dependent" gets written down, other wise, it's labeled L.I. I also know that for L.D. functions, the last one can be recreated using the previous functions. How that applies to anything or can be used for anything i don't know. That's all I understand so far. None of that helps me answer the question.
Jeff12341234 said:Yea, but I don't understand how intervals come into play. I just take the functions (y1, y2, y3, etc), make them into a square matrix, run the determinant function on the square matrix, set answer equal to zero, solve for x, if x can be solved for the label "Linearly Dependent" gets written down, other wise, it's labeled L.I. I also know that for L.D. functions, the last one can be recreated using the previous functions. How that applies to anything or can be used for anything i don't know. That's all I understand so far. None of that helps me answer the question.
Jeff12341234 said:ok, so this set of solutions is L.I. along (2/7, inf), (-inf, 0), and (0, 2/7) and L.D. on the point x=0 and x=2/7 ?
Jeff12341234 said:According to your previous statement they are. ("If the Wronskian is ≠ 0 at any value of x at all, then the functions are linearly independent on ANY interval whatsoever.") The wronskian equals zero at 2 points so everywhere else it doesn't equal zero. Therefore, since it qualifies for the "doesn't equal zero at any point at all" condition, they must be L.I.
Jeff12341234 said:ok. It's nonzero everywhere except x=0 and x=2/7.. soo... it's L.I. ? If no interval is given by the question, I guess (-inf,inf) is assumed to be the interval.
Jeff12341234 said:w = wronskian (determinant result)
If w = 0
--function set is L.D.
Jeff12341234 said:w = wronskian (determinant result)
If w = 0
--function set is L.D.
else
--function set is L.I. everywhere
If w = some function
--set w = 0
--solve for x
--If you can solve for x
----function set is L.I. except at x value(s)
--else
----function set is L.I. everywhere
Is that right?
source: "Here W=0 only when x=0 . Therefore x^2 and x are independent except at x=0 . " http://planetmath.org/WronskianDeterminant.html
Jeff12341234 said:I looked back over that wiki article. I can't make sense of it enough to modify the "procedural code" that I previously posted.
Jeff12341234 said:I need an actual procedure to perform to test for those rare exceptions you mentioned for instances where w=0 and the functions are still L.I.
Jeff12341234 said:so basically the wronskian fails in these circumstances since performing the test results in w=0 implying L.D.
Another procedural test needs to be used. Could that test be to solve a system of equations such that the first equation, a*f1(x)+b*f2(x)=0, x=1, and the second equation,a*f1(x)+b*f2(x)=0, x=-1. If a=b=0 the set of functions are L.I. Can I use that procedure and be confident that I've covered all of the possibilities now? If the test I just described can always be used, why not use it in place of the wronskian?
Jeff12341234 said:ok. That's good to know.
Going back to the original question of this thread, I just ended up writing that the functions are L.I. everywhere except for x=0 and x=2/7 at which, on those points, they are L.D. Is there a better way to answer part A and and B that what I wrote?
Jeff12341234 said:Well, you said that pseudo code I wrote earlier was right except for special cases when w=0, which we went over. So I'm guessing the pseudo code should really be:
--If you can solve for x
----function set is L.I. everywhere
instead of:
--If you can solve for x
----function set is L.I. except at x value(s)
Jeff12341234 said:So for this question, when asked where the function set is L.I., (-inf, inf) would be the best answer and for L.D., it would be 'none'?
Jeff12341234 said:I did some more research on this. Appearently you're allowed to plug in an x value first (typically x=0) to the square matrix BEFORE doing the determinant. After that the logic is simply:
If w = 0
--function set is L.D. and is NOT the whole solution
else
--function set is L.I. and is the general solution
When I do that for this problem, i get a matrix where the top row is 5 , 0 and the second row is 10 , 0. This results in a determinant that is 0... making it L.D. I really need a once-and-for-all, authoritative proof for what this should be because I'm getting all kinds of conflicting results. To top it all off, he's asking for intervals for each which isn't even mentioned in most resources I've read.
LCKurtz said:And for my parting shot I will just observe that the two original functions can't be solutions of a second order linear DE with nonzero leading coefficient in the first place because their Wronskian is neither nonzero nor identically zero.
And Dick, you deserve a medal for your persistence. But wait..., you already have one.