- #1
quietrain
- 655
- 2
the formula for damped oscillations is given as x = Ae^(-bt/2m) cos(ωt+Φ)
so why is the amplitude as a function of time given as only the first part?
meaning only A(t) = Ae^(-bt/2m)
it "ignores" the 2nd term which is the oscillating cosine term. which still encompass a time t value too...
so how come the amplitude function is given as so ?
thanks
so why is the amplitude as a function of time given as only the first part?
meaning only A(t) = Ae^(-bt/2m)
it "ignores" the 2nd term which is the oscillating cosine term. which still encompass a time t value too...
so how come the amplitude function is given as so ?
thanks