Deduction of the action of this unitary on the wavefunction

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I have operators satisfying ##[\hat{Z} , \hat{E}] = i \hbar##. The operators ##\hat{Z}## and ##\hat{E}## are taken to be Hermitian. You consider the unitary operator

##U_\lambda = \exp (i \lambda \hat{Z} / \hbar)##.

I have proved that

##U_\lambda \hat{E} U_\lambda^\dagger = \hat{E} - \lambda \quad Eq.1##

I know how to apply Eq.1 to any function of ##\hat{E}##, ##f (\hat{E})##, which may be Taylor expanded. Moreover consider the application of the transformation to some matrix elements

##\int_0^\infty \psi^* (E) f (\hat{E}) \phi (E) dE = \int_0^\infty \psi^* U^\dagger U f (\hat{E}) U^\dagger U \phi dE = \int \psi^* U^\dagger f (\hat{E} - \lambda) U \phi dE##

I'm told that you can deduce from this that (and similarly for ##\psi^*##):

##U \phi (E) = \phi (E - \lambda)##.

I not sure I understand this. What am I missing?

Thanks.
 
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The integration should run from ##-\infty## to ##\infty##. Then
$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty \psi^* (E) f (E) \phi (E) dE = \int_{-\infty}^\infty \psi^* (E-\lambda) f (\hat{E-\lambda}) \phi (E-\lambda) dE$$
Now compare this with ##\int_{-\infty}^\infty (U\psi)^\dagger f (E - \lambda) U \phi dE##
 
blue_leaf77 said:
The integration should run from ##-\infty## to ##\infty##. Then
$$\int_{-\infty}^\infty \psi^* (E) f (E) \phi (E) dE = \int_{-\infty}^\infty \psi^* (E-\lambda) f (\hat{E-\lambda}) \phi (E-\lambda) dE$$
Now compare this with ##\int_{-\infty}^\infty (U\psi)^\dagger f (E - \lambda) U \phi dE##

Actually ##E## is the Energy and is bounded from below, I've taken the lower bound to be ##E=0##, so that there are no energy-eigenstates for ##E < 0##. I probably should have mentioned that.

Did a major edit here.
 
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Are you sure ##\hat{E}## is energy and should be bound to zero? What if ##E-\lambda## is negative, ##\phi(E-\lambda)## will then have no defined state?
Actually ##U## operator is called the translation operator, you may remember that there is a pair of well-known operators which satisfy the same commutator relation as our problem here, which are the momentum and position operators. Besides how come you explicitly write that the eigenvalues of ##\hat{E}## is continuous? Perhaps it will help if you tell us in which context/discussion you encountered this problem.
 
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It is energy - I'm looking into the problems that arise when you attempt defining a putative Hermitian operator conjugate to the Hamiltonian operator (so a putative time operator. I'm aware that time is not a dynamical quantity but I'm ignoring that for the moment). In non-relativistic problems the energy has a lower bound and we may as well take it be 0 as we are allowed to.

By the way I'm not worrying too much about some of the mathematical subtleties right now - just trying to get a first handle on it.

The contradiction I'm leading up to is applying ##U## to an energy eigenstate, ##\phi (E) = \delta (E-E_0)##, which only has an amplitude at some particular energy ##E_0##, with ##\lambda## is sufficiently big to displace ##E_0## below ##E=0## where, by assumption, there are no energy eigenstates, proving no Hermitian ##\hat{Z}## exists.

In relativistic quantum mechanics there is the gap ##-mc^2 < E < mc^2##, so we can apply similar arguments there.
 
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Come to think of it, my old prof's notes I'm looking at might have a mistake...when you do ##\phi(E) \mapsto \phi (E - \lambda)## what this does is moves the function to the right along the ##E-##axis by ##\lambda##.

If I want to shift the energy eigenstate ##\phi (E) = \delta (E-E_0)## to the left along the ##E-##axis (creating an energy-eigenstate with negative energy and hence a contradiction) don't I need to do ##\phi (E) \mapsto \phi (E+\lambda)##?

Obviously ##\phi (E+\lambda) = \delta (E+\lambda-E_0)## only has an amplitude at ##E = E_0 - \lambda##!
 
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