Degrees of freedom - molecule of water vapor

AI Thread Summary
In solid form, water (H2O) has six degrees of freedom, consisting of three translational and three vibrational due to bond potential energy. When water transitions to vapor, the degrees of freedom increase significantly. In the gaseous state, each molecule has more translational freedom and additional rotational degrees of freedom, leading to a total of around 9 degrees of freedom. The phase change from solid to vapor results in a fundamental shift in molecular motion and energy distribution. Understanding these changes is crucial in thermodynamics and molecular physics.
Geronimo85
Messages
20
Reaction score
0
I understand that for H20 in solid form, each atom within the molecule has 6 degrees of freedom; 3 translational and 3 due to potential energy from bonds. Does the number of degrees of freedom change when water changes phase to a vapor?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
whoops, missed the heading about posting homework questions... I'll mosey on out of here. Sorry!
 
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Hello everyone, Consider the problem in which a car is told to travel at 30 km/h for L kilometers and then at 60 km/h for another L kilometers. Next, you are asked to determine the average speed. My question is: although we know that the average speed in this case is the harmonic mean of the two speeds, is it also possible to state that the average speed over this 2L-kilometer stretch can be obtained as a weighted average of the two speeds? Best regards, DaTario
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Back
Top