Deriving the effective potential due to screening

SkeZa
Messages
6
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



I'm supposed to show that the Lindhard dielectric functions gives a contribution to the effective potential of a metals as

U_{eff}( \vec{r} ) \propto \frac{cos( 2 k_{F}r)}{r^{3}}

in the limit of r\rightarrow\infty for d = 3 (3 dimensions)

Homework Equations



Lindhard dielectric function:
\epsilon(\vec{k},0) = 1 + \frac{\kappa^{2}_{TF}}{2k^{2}} ( 1 + \frac{1}{4k_{F}}\frac{4k^{2}_{F}-k^{2}}{2k}\ln \frac{2k_{F}+k}{2k_{F}-k}) = \epsilon(\vec{k})

U_{eff}(\vec{k}) = \frac{U(\vec{k})}{\epsilon(\vec{k},0)}

U(\vec{k}) = \frac{4 \pi e^{2}}{k^{2}}

U_{eff}(\vec{r}) is the inverse (spatial) Fourier transform of U_{eff}(\vec{k})

k_{F} is the Fermi wavevector

\kappa^{2}_{TF} is the Thomas-Fermi wavevector (constant)

The Attempt at a Solution


I've tried to Taylor expand \frac{1}{\epsilon(\vec{k})} around 2k_{F} but the first derivative contains the logarithm which is divergent. I tried this because one of my classmates recommended it.

I tried to perform the Fourier transform by
U_{eff}(\vec{r}) \propto \int d\vec{k} e^{i \vec{k}\bullet\vec{r}}\frac{U(\vec{k})}{\epsilon(\vec{k},0)} \propto \int k^{2} dk d(cos(\theta)) d\phi e^{i k r cos(\theta)}\frac{U(\vec{k})}{\epsilon(\vec{k},0)} \propto \int k^{2} dk \frac{U(\vec{k})}{\epsilon(\vec{k},0)} \frac{e^{ikr} - e^{-ikr}}{ikr} \propto \frac{1}{r}\int dk \frac{1}{k \epsilon(\vec{k})} sin(kr)

This is kinda where I'm stuck.
How do I proceed from here?
Or am I supposed to have done something else?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
The logarithm diverges, but it is multiplied by 0 (for the first term in the Taylor expansion).
 
I know that.

The problem is how to simplify/rewrite that expression (the last one) into something solveable...
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top