Did I do this right or get lucky? Deriving spherical shell moment of inertia

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on deriving the moment of inertia for a spherical shell, with the participant outlining their approach using integrals. They express the moment of inertia as I = Int(r^2 dM) and substitute dM with (phi)(dA), leading to I = Int(r^2 phi dA). The participant simplifies the integral by considering half a sphere and using geometric relationships to derive the area element dA. Ultimately, they arrive at the result of (2/3)MR^2 for the moment of inertia, questioning whether their method was correct or merely lucky. The calculation appears valid based on the outlined steps and reasoning.
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Homework Statement


Basically just to find moment of inertia of a spherical shell


Homework Equations


Moment of Inertia = Int(r^2 dm)


The Attempt at a Solution



I am in 12th grade and don't know much about integrals? Did I get lucky or am I right?

I = Int(r^2dM)

dM= (phi)(dA)

I = Int(r^2 phi dA)

Pull out phi, which equals M/4piR^2

I started by looking at half a sphere so I made that M/2piR^2. To get dA I figured you think of a bunch of hoops all going up to one point with a circumferance of 2piR, as you get higher up the radius changes however. A triangle says that R sin theta will get you the new radiuses, so for dA I wrote the integral of 2 pi R sin theta, dTheta. I put that in as dA, this R is a constant so now I have (M 2 pi R)/(2 pi R ^2) on the outside which cancels to M/R

Now I have

(M/R) Int(r^2 sin Theta, dTheta, dR) the R goes from 0 to R the theta from 0 to pi/2. The integral of sin Theta over that integral is 1, so it ends up

(MR^3)/(3R)

R's cancel

MR^2/3

That's half a sphere so multiply by 2

2/3 M R^2

Was that luck or does that work?
 
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