integration is not finding antiderivatives, that is antidifferentiation.
integration is a process of averaging. the two concepts do not even agree for finding areas of rectangles. i.e. a function which equals 1 between 0 and 1, and equals 2 between 1 and 3, does not have a differentiable parent function, but the graph is a rectangle, hence it has an integral. i.e. an area. still there is a piecewise linear parent function, namely the moving area function for the (discontinuous) graph.
this is exactly the sort of "understanding" I am talking about, on a very elementary level.
on a more sophisticated level, the cantor function is continuous on [0,1], and has derivative equal to zero at almost all points, yet equals 0 at 0 and equals 1 at 1. Hence its derivative is essentially zero, and yet it is not constant.
This means it cannot be recovered by integrating its derivative. I.e. this function is apparentkly the parent function of the zero function, but does not comoute the integral of the zero function.
the point is a riemann integrable function does not have to be continuous, as shown by riemann himself on the next page after he defined the integral. The function only has to be continuous off a set of measure zero.
But an integrable function does have a continuoius "parent" function, obtained by integrating it from a to x, i.e. the indefinite integral/ This funtion does evaluate the integral by subtracting its values at a and b, but how does one recognize such a parent function?
The parent function will have derivatiuve equal to the original function oiff a et of measure zero, but this is not enough, one also needs to require the parent function to be lipschitz continuous, in order to rule out counter examples like the cantor function.
the easy rule that the integral of can be computed by a function whose derivative equals f, is only useful when f is continuous, since other integrable functions will not have such antierivatives.
very few beginning calculus students, especially physics majors, have mastered these details of the calculus, and yet i taught this in my first semester honors calc course a few years back.
however Newton indeed knew some of this, including that inegrable functions may not have antiderivatives, since he proved, well before riemann that all monotone functions have integrals, even though such functions may have infinitely many discontinuities.
in advanced physics it seems to me that discontinuous functions are encountered, hence one needs a deeper grasp of the underlying mathematics, e.g. in quantum mechanics.
i love the suggestion that since Newton understood calculus, so do (all?) physicists. i thought we were talking about typical physics students, not geniuses.
i thought the issue here was whether the average student understands calculus well before grad school, not whether Newton did so.