Difference between Perfect Diamagnetism and Superconductors

AI Thread Summary
Perfect diamagnetism and superconductors differ primarily in their interaction with magnetic fields, particularly illustrated by the Meissner Effect. In perfect diamagnetic materials, magnetic fields remain unchanged even at zero resistance, while superconductors actively expel external magnetic fields when cooled below their critical temperature. This expulsion occurs due to the formation of Cooper pairs in superconductors, which leads to a unique state that contrasts with the behavior of diamagnetic materials. The discussion emphasizes the need for a conceptual understanding of the Meissner Effect, suggesting that a simplified explanation could be beneficial for educational purposes. Overall, the distinction lies in the active exclusion of magnetic fields by superconductors compared to the passive behavior of perfect diamagnets.
Hells_Kitchen
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Could someone please explain the difference between Perfect Diamagnetism and Superconductors in terms of the Meissner Effect and the magnetic field passing through an element of the sort.

Under low temperatures in perfect diamagnetic materials if there is a magnetic field it remains the same even when the resistance becomes 0 while for superconductors under low temperatures when they reach the superconducting point (low enough temp.) they exclude any external magnetic field that might be passing through them. Why is this the case? I know this is explained through the Meissner Effect but I do not really understand the concept and theory behind it.

Thanks,
HK
 
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diamagnetic materials exclude magnetic fields from there interiors just as paramagnetic materials attract them. diamagnetism is associated with lone pairs of electrons just as superconductivity is associated with cooper pairs.
 


Thanks for your answer but could you elaborate a little more on perfect diamagnetism and the Meissner effect for superconductors.

Thanks,
HK
 


Not sure if you want simply a hand-waving argument, or a detailed derivation. Still, check out the hyperphysics webpage

http://hyperphysics.phy-astr.gsu.edu/hbase/solids/meis.html

If you click on the link for the London equation, you'll get one of the derivation of the Meissner effect.

Zz.
 


That seems like a very nice and elegant proof, however, I would appreciate a conceptual description (or hand-waving argument like you said) since this is a presantation topic for my E&M physics course.

Thanks,
HK
 


Hells_Kitchen said:
That seems like a very nice and elegant proof, however, I would appreciate a conceptual description (or hand-waving argument like you said) since this is a presantation topic for my E&M physics course.

Thanks,
HK

Then put the mathematics into words, introduce a few vague analogies, and viola! You have a hand-waving argument.

Zz.
 
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