Difficulties with Substitution Rule (integration)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around understanding the substitution rule in integration, particularly in the context of indefinite integrals. Participants are exploring the relationship between the chain rule and the substitution rule, as well as clarifying the application of Leibniz's rule in this context.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to relate the substitution rule to the chain rule and are questioning the correct application of Leibniz's rule. There is a focus on understanding the notation and the implications of differentiating products of functions.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights and clarifications regarding the substitution rule and its relationship to other rules of calculus. Some participants are seeking explicit explanations, while others are attempting to correct misunderstandings about the rules involved.

Contextual Notes

There are mentions of specific resources, such as a university webpage, which may provide additional context or proof related to integration. Participants are also reflecting on their own assumptions and notation, indicating a need for clarity in their understanding.

quicksilver123
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I can obviously do the chain rule and see how the final expression of the derivative is related to the original function but I can't seem to figure out the substitution Rule as an intuitive way of solving the indefinite integral of functions... bear with me if I'm too verbose, I've attached an image with ,y reasoning...
 
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The Lamar university web page on integration offers the same material and proof.
 
If ##g(x)=v## then ##\int [f(g(x))g'(x)]dx= \int [f(v)v'(x)]dx=\int [f(v)]dv = \int f(u)du##.

Your mistake is ##\int [f(v)v'(x)]dx \neq [\int f(v)dv] \cdot [\int v'dv]##.

The essential reason for this is, because a differentiation obeys the Leibniz rule, i.e. leads to a derivative: ##d(f\cdot g)= (df)\cdot g + f\cdot (dg),## and does not allow a factor-wise multiplication: ##d(f\cdot g)\neq (df)\cdot (dg)\,.##
 
Could you explicitly explain the correct method in terms of your liebnitz Rule?
 
quicksilver123 said:
Could you explicitly explain the correct method in terms of your liebnitz Rule?
Sorry, I confused the chain rule and the Leibniz rule. The chain rule corresponds to the substitution rule and the Leibniz rule corresponds to integration by parts. The shortest way to see the equation in (4) is to use the notation with the ##d##'s, also called Leibniz notation. Here we get by the substitution ##g(x)=u##
$$
\int [f(g(x))g'(x)dx] = \int [f(g(x)) \frac{dg(x)}{dx} dx] = \int [f(g(x))dg(x)] = \int [f(u)du]
$$
where I have only calculated with the terms under the integration. Nothing goes outside as I understood your remark.

You haven't written (in your hand writing) what your integration variable is, so I assume you meant ##\int [f(g(x))g'(x)]dx = [\int f(g(x))dx] \cdot [\int u'dx] =[\int f(g(x))dx] \cdot u##. But the integral of a product (and that is why I brought up the Leibniz rule) is given by
$$
[f(g(x))\cdot g(x)]' = f(g(x)) \cdot g'(x) + [f(g(x)]' \cdot g(x) \Longrightarrow \int [f(g(x)) \cdot g'(x)]dx = f(g(x))\cdot g(x) - \int [f(g(x))]' \cdot g(x)dx
$$
 

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