Dirac Delta Integration Problem

AI Thread Summary
The integral of the Dirac delta function, specifically ∫_{-\infty}^t (cos τ)δ(τ) dτ, evaluates to 1 for t > 0, 0 for t < 0, and is not defined for t = 0. The Dirac delta function acts as a spike at x=0, leading to the result that the integral is zero if the integration limits do not include this point. There are various conventions for handling integrals involving the delta function, especially when the limits approach zero, which can lead to ambiguities. Some conventions suggest that half-intervals yield half the value of the delta function at zero, while others require specific annotations to clarify the direction of the limit. Understanding these nuances is crucial for correctly applying the Dirac delta function in integrals.
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Homework Statement



\int_{-\infty}^t (cos \tau)\delta(\tau) d\tau

Evaluate the integral. I'm supposed to evaluate this for all t I believe, so I'm concerned with t<0, t=0, t>0.



Homework Equations




\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x)\delta(x) dx = f(0)


The Attempt at a Solution



I understand the second equation will give me some of my answer. When t is infinity, cos 0 is to be evaluated, and I get 1. The problem is, I don't really understand how the Dirac Delta function works with integrals. I have no idea what would happen if I let t = -5, or t = 0, with merely the one equation I am given. The textbook I am using doesn't seem to give much information besides the above equation, and how the Delta function and Unit Step function relate.

Can anyone help me understand this better?

The answer is given to me, as well: 1 for t > 0, 0 for t < 0, not defined for t = 0.
 
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Figured it out. :)

The integral of the Delta function is the Unit Step function, and then cos 0 evaluates to 1... so the answer is basically the Unit Step.
 
I find it convenient to remember this: the Dirac delta function is just a spike at x=0, and zero everywhere else. So the integral of anything times a delta function is obviously zero if the range of integration doesn't include the spike. That is,
\int_a^b f(x) \delta(x) = 0
if a and b are either both positive, or both negative.
 
Be aware that there are several conflicting definitions for what it might mean to take an integral involving the Dirac delta whose domain isn't everywhere.

For example, one could adopt the convention that \int_S f(x) \, \delta(x) \, dx is f(0) if 0 \in S and 0 otherwise. However, the \int_0^a f(x) \delta(x) \, dx is now ambiguous -- is the interval of integration supposed to be (0, a)? Or is it [0, a]? Or something else? What if a were negative?

Normally, individual points are irrelevant, but when you start working with things like the Dirac delta that are not functions, you have to deal with the oddities this new type of object demands.

One specific oddity is the following: what is \int_{-1}^0 f(x) \delta(x) \, dx? What is \int_0^1 f(x) \delta(x) \, dx? What is \int_{-1}^1 f(x) \delta(x) \, dx? Have you worked that out (using whatever definition you're using)?

Now check if the following equation is valid:
\int_{-1}^0 f(x) \delta(x) \, dx + \int_0^1 f(x) \delta(x) \, dx = \int_{-1}^1 f(x) \delta(x) \, dx


For that reason (and others), another convention that people use is that a half-interval only gets half of delta: for any positive t:
\int_{-t}^0 f(x) \delta(x) \, dx = \frac{1}{2} f(0)
and
\int_0^t f(x) \delta(x) \, dx = \frac{1}{2} f(0)


Other times, people add an extra annotation, whether the limit stops "before" 0 or "after" 0:
\int_{-1}^{0^-} f(x) \delta(x) \, dx = 0
\int_{-1}^{0^+} f(x) \delta(x) \, dx = f(0)
and in this convention, the following is simply illegal
\int_{-1}^{0} f(x) \delta(x) \, dx
because you didn't annotate 0 with a direction.
 
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