Discovering a General Formula for the Function: Hints and Tips

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding a general formula for the integral of the function involving \( \frac{1}{(2n)!} \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x^{2n} e^{-ax^2} \). Participants express uncertainty about how to approach the integration and the manipulation of the function.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss integration techniques, particularly integration by parts, and express confusion about rewriting the integral to facilitate finding an anti-derivative. There are suggestions to split the product in the integral and to recognize patterns through repeated integration.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants sharing hints and exploring different approaches to the problem. Some guidance has been offered regarding integration techniques, but there is no explicit consensus on a single method or solution.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraints of a homework assignment, which may limit the information they can share or the methods they can use. There is also a focus on understanding the nature of the problem versus the solution.

greisen
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Hi,

I have to find a general formula for the function

1/(2n)!\int_{-\inf}^{\inf}x^{2n}*e^{-ax^2}I am a little bit lost in how to proceed - any hints appreciated thanks in advance
 
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greisen said:
1/(2n)!\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}x^{2n}*e^{-ax^2}​

Hi greisen! :smile:

(btw, it's "\infty")

I assume you've tried integrating by parts, and found that if you start with the x^2n, it just gets worse, and you can't start with the e^{-ax^2}, because it doesn't have a nice anti-derivative?

Hint: can you split the product in some other way, so that you can get an anti-derivative involving the e^{-ax^2}? :smile:
 
Thanks

yes I have tried integration by parts but that got very messy.

I don't quite understand how to rewrite the equation involving the anti-derivative?

 
well, i would say sth like this would put u on the right track

\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}x^{2n}*e^{-ax^2} = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}x^{2n-1}xe^{-ax^2}dx then performing integration by parts by letting

u=x^{2n-1},v=\int xe^{-ax^2}dx

I think this would work. By performing integ by parts a couple of times, i think you will be able to notice some pattern, then use induction to prove the general case.

P.S. This is basically what tiny-tim's Hint says...i hope at least...lol...
 
problem … solution … it's just a state of mind!

Yutup, sutupidmath is right, of course. :smile:

The trick is to recognise the difference between a problem and a solution.

In this case, the problem is that you look at ∫e^-ax^2
and think
"I can't integrate that … if only it had an extra 2ax in front of it!"
and change that round to
"I can integrate that if i put an extra 2ax in front of it!"

Problem … solution … it's just a state of mind! :smile:
 

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