Do 1/inf and 1000/inf have same limit of 0?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the limits of the expressions 1/N and 1000/N as N approaches infinity, exploring whether they both converge to zero. The scope includes mathematical reasoning and conceptual clarification regarding limits and the treatment of infinity in calculus.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning, Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • One participant asserts that both 1/N and 1000/N have a limit of zero as N tends to infinity.
  • Another participant challenges the phrasing of the question, arguing that "1/infinity" is not a valid expression in the real number system, yet agrees that the limits of both expressions are indeed zero.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

There is some agreement that both limits approach zero; however, there is disagreement regarding the validity of using "1/infinity" as a concept in the discussion.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights a potential misunderstanding of the concept of limits and the treatment of infinity, indicating a need for clarity on these mathematical concepts.

hassman
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The title says it all:

Do

[tex]\frac{1}{N} =[/tex] and [tex]\frac{1000}{N}[/tex] have limit of zero as N tends to infinity?
 
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Yes.
 
ok :D ty
 
hassman said:
The title says it all:

Do

[tex]\frac{1}{N} =[/tex] and [tex]\frac{1000}{N}[/tex] have limit of zero as N tends to infinity?
No, the title does not say it all! the limit as N goes to infinity, of 1/N, is NOT the same as "1/infinity"! The latter simply makes no sense. You cannot do arithmetic with "infinity" in the real number system.

The answer to your question is "yes", however, those limits are both 0.
 

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