Does an EM wave bend in a B-field?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the behavior of electromagnetic (EM) waves in magnetic fields and the distinction between EM waves and particles like electrons. It is noted that while electrons, which carry charge, can bend in a magnetic field, photons do not due to their lack of charge. The conversation explores the interpretation of EM waves as probability waves in quantum mechanics, but emphasizes that probability waves are mathematical constructs, differing fundamentally from physical EM fields. Participants debate whether the bending of waves in magnetic fields is related to charge or the nature of the wave itself. Ultimately, the discourse highlights the complexity of interpreting wave-particle duality in quantum mechanics.
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I read somewhere that Thomson (1897) concluded that the electron was not an EM wave because it bended in a magnetic field and that it had been proven that EM waves did not do this. Is this true?
 
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Why would a wave bend in a magnetic field?

A CHARGE will experience a force, but the E&M wave is a "wave", a propagating electric-magnetic field. They can superpose.
 
Indeed, but my confusion arose from this: if in QM an EM wave is interpreted as a probability wave, just like an electron is interpreted as a probability wave, then due to the latter statement, a probability wave can experience a B-field. Now indeed a photon has no charge, but an EM-wave does have an E-field, so it might intermingle? And if it doesn't, is the reason a photon doesn't bend in a B-field because it has no charge, or more fundamentally that it is a wave?
 
I can't explain it at the QM level, but I know that fields can superpose (shown by the linearity of Maxwell's equations).

True that electron is interpreted as a wave, however I don't think we can say "electron is a wave, photon is a wave, they're the same". Obviously the electron has a charge and it behaves differently than other waves on the larger scale. That's probably the reason, I'm not sure.
 
If a photon could be bent in a magnetic field it would have to have its own B field or E field for this to happen .
 
cragar: isn't that exactly what a photon has?
 
Then why can't a photon emit photons.
 
Indeed, but my confusion arose from this: if in QM an EM wave is interpreted as a probability wave, just like an electron is interpreted as a probability wave, then due to the latter statement, a probability wave can experience a B-field. Now indeed a photon has no charge, but an EM-wave does have an E-field, so it might intermingle? And if it doesn't, is the reason a photon doesn't bend in a B-field because it has no charge, or more fundamentally that it is a wave?
Field wave and probability wave are different.
Probability wave is more of a mathematical construct than physical reality (although it depends on interpretation). It contains all information about physical state.
EM field is a fundamental field of nature. It is definitely out there, waving happily, making light, radio waves and other nice things. (Unlike probability wave, which is gone once you look at the particle.)
 
Dead Boss said:
Field wave and probability wave are different.
Probability wave is more of a mathematical construct than physical reality (although it depends on interpretation). It contains all information about physical state.
EM field is a fundamental field of nature. It is definitely out there, waving happily, making light, radio waves and other nice things. (Unlike probability wave, which is gone once you look at the particle.)

That's what I thought at first, but I read that Bohr interpreted an EM wave as a probability wave. Was Bohr wrong the first time around?
 
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