Ellipse from 2 arbitrary points, tangent at P1 and focus

silkms
Messages
9
Reaction score
0
MENTOR Note: Moved this thread from a math forum hence no template

Is it possible to find this? Really only need the semi major axis or even it's orientation.

In the image below, elements in red are known.

Orbital_Ellipse.png
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Physics news on Phys.org
Have you looked at Kepler's laws for planetary motion?
 
jedishrfu said:
Have you looked at Kepler's laws for planetary motion?

Yup. I am using them to find the velocity for a projectile at p1, when both p1 and p2 are on the surface of the planet, but unfortunately my technique for finding the true anomaly (the angle between p1 and the periapsis), breaks when one of the points leaves the surface and is no longer mirrored across the axis of the ellipse.

A technique for finding the true anomaly for a more general case would also allow me to solve this!

I expect that there is a solution to this using Kepler's laws, but I am struggling to get there and hoping someone here will have some insight.
 
Seems solvable. You only need two numbers to specify the ellipse, and it looks like with the information given, you should be able to come up with at least two independent equations. (I take it we can assume the planet is much more massive than the orbiting object and therefore remains at rest.)

When you say, "tangent at P1," do you mean you know the velocity of the object at P1 or just its direction?
 
vela said:
Seems solvable. You only need two numbers to specify the ellipse, and it looks like with the information given, you should be able to come up with at least two independent equations. (I take it we can assume the planet is much more massive than the orbiting object and therefore remains at rest.)

When you say, "tangent at P1," do you mean you know the velocity of the object at P1 or just its direction?

Just it's direction. Actually hoping to find it's velocity.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top