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Hi there,

in Feynmann's lectures, (Vol 2 eq (21.1) Heaviside-Feynman forumla)

https://www.feynmanlectures.caltech.edu/II_21.html

it is said that radiation comes from the last term, the one with acceleration in it. This formula is a particular case of the Jefimenko equations, the ones derived from Lienard-Wiechert potentials.

These potentials are particular solutions of the inhomogeneus wave equations for the potentials (in Lorenz gauge). I should add the general solution of the homogeneus equestions, i.e. wave solutions, to get the true general solution.

Does wave solutions for the potentials translate into wave solutions for the fields?

And where does exactly the wave phenomenon come from? from the homogeneus solution or from the second time derivative Feynman was talking about in his (21.1) formula?

Thank you!

in Feynmann's lectures, (Vol 2 eq (21.1) Heaviside-Feynman forumla)

https://www.feynmanlectures.caltech.edu/II_21.html

it is said that radiation comes from the last term, the one with acceleration in it. This formula is a particular case of the Jefimenko equations, the ones derived from Lienard-Wiechert potentials.

These potentials are particular solutions of the inhomogeneus wave equations for the potentials (in Lorenz gauge). I should add the general solution of the homogeneus equestions, i.e. wave solutions, to get the true general solution.

Does wave solutions for the potentials translate into wave solutions for the fields?

And where does exactly the wave phenomenon come from? from the homogeneus solution or from the second time derivative Feynman was talking about in his (21.1) formula?

Thank you!

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