Evaluating Group Homomorphisms and the Remainder Theorem

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Hey I've been working on this question,

How that the following is a homomorphism
\theta :{{D}_{2n}}\to {{D}_{2n}}\,\,\,givenby\,\,\,\theta ({{a}^{j}}{{b}^{k}})={{b}^{k}}\,\,\,

\theta ({{a}^{j}}{{b}^{k}})\theta ({{a}^{m}}{{b}^{n}})={{b}^{k}}{{b}^{n}}


\theta ({{a}^{j}}{{b}^{k}}{{a}^{m}}{{b}^{n}})=?

From what it looks like it isn't a homomorphism but I'm not sure how to evaluate the last line,

Does anyone know how to evaluate it?

I also have another question which I solved numerically but I'm not sure how to show it algebraically,

Would anyone know how to show
\text{Remaider}\left( \frac{ab}{n} \right)\ne \text{Remainder}\left( \frac{a}{n} \right)\times \text{Remainder}\left( \frac{b}{n} \right) For\,\,a,b,n\in \mathbb{Z}

Or would it be sufficient to just know that its not true?
 
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combine your a's and b's via exponent rules and you will see that you get the same result, assuming a^jb^ka^mb^n=a^ja^mb^kb^n
 
How can you assume a^jb^ka^mb^n=a^ja^mb^kb^n?

The dihedral group doesn't commute so you can't assume that ^ can you?

I tried using the group property ba=a-1b but it just made it uglier

I might be able to instead say b^na^m is also an element of the domain so \theta ({{a}^{j}}{{b}^{k}})\theta ({{b}^{n}}{{a}^{m}})={{b}^{k}}{{b}^{n}}

but how can I be sure that the homomorphism would act that way with a element of different arrangement?

then it would follow
\theta ({{a}^{j}}{{b}^{k}}{{b}^{n}}{{a}^{m}})={{b}^{k}}{{b}^{n}}
again assuming the homomorphism simply takes only the b elements, regardless of their arrangement around the a's
 
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Notice that a^kb^ja^mb^n = a^{k-m}b^{j+n} and use this to prove the necessary homomorphism property. I promise it works and it does not make things all that messy.

Your remark on the remainders is not true either. What it b = kn?
 
I tried using the group property ba=a-1b
Are you sure that is true? Did you mean (ab)^{-1}=b^{-1}a^{-1}?


Your remark on the remainders is not true either. What it b=kn
the claim says For\ a,b,n\in\mathbb{Z} which I would take to imply that any choices are valid. In that case, the claim is correct. A single counter-example is all that is needed to disprove a claim, but if it is homework, the prof. might want a little more explanation.
 
DrewD said:
Are you sure that is true? Did you mean (ab)^{-1}=b^{-1}a^{-1}?

It is true that ab=ba^{-1} in Dihedral groups. The group in question is D_{2n} = \langle a,b | a^n = b^2 = e, ab = ba^{-1} \rangle. If you need to review the group, you can read about it here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dihedral_group

the claim says For\ a,b,n\in\mathbb{Z} which I would take to imply that any choices are valid. In that case, the claim is correct.

The claim is not correct. As you already noted, a single counter-example is all that is needed to disprove the claim and choosing b = kn does just that.
 
b can only be a reflection? If a and b can be any element of the group, the statement is not correct. If the elements have been restricted, this is a convention that was not used in my algebra classes. I just wanted to make sure that the question had been explicit since this is a homework section.

you are correct on the second one. I was reading it as saying that the positive was not true in general, but that is not what the statement was. sorry.
 
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DrewD said:
If a and b can be any element of the group, the statement is not correct.

Your mapping will not be well-defined if you do not fix meanings for a,b; in particular, one must be a reflection and one a rotation otherwise you cannot write every element of the group in the desired form. Once a,b have been fixed, it follows that b has to be the reflection if the map is to be a group homomorphism.

Edit: I know the OP did not include any of this information, but the point is that you can kind of figure out what has to be what.
 
Thanks for all your answers guys

so to get

a^kb^ja^mb^n = a^{k-m}b^{j+n}


b^ja^m = a^{-m}b^{j}

Thanks heaps!
 
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