Arjan82 said:
Also, if the pressure is constant along a streamline and is initially atmospheric, then it is atmospheric everywhere right?
That's kind of what I thought is the case in steady flow.
Arjan82 said:
However, in streamlines that go around the care the pressure is not constant, nor atmospheric. Also, the velocity is not equal to ##V_1##. Why do you think it is?
Well there is this whole business with turning I suppose. The ## \frac{V^2}{r}## "centripetal acceleration" should have some say about that. It gives me pause but then we need to consider rotational, irrotational flow. Am I missing something, things clearly turn in Bernoulli's too, so its confusing me.
Arjan82 said:
Funnily enough this is what Newton used to predict lift forces of a wing, it is not correct. But conceptually it is correct that the static pressure increases at the red dot which is correlated with the angle of the surface at that location.
At least I'm in good company a few hundred years ago!
Arjan82 said:
This is indeed conservation of mass and momentum. You can use those to derive Bernoulli. You don't need conservation of energy as well. But you can also use conservation of energy and mass to derive Bernoulli. Both will work.
Well that's not trivial at all. So there are some analytical solutions of the flow equations (with lots and lots of simplifications), like the
Joukowsky transform. Those solutions will tell you what the static pressure and velocity is at a certain location. But that does not follow from Bernoulli.
I can't solve for what the force ##F## is equivalent to, without some invocation/simplification of the First Law - Bernoulli's? I used all three equations. I get this:
$$
F = \rho V_1^2 A \sin \theta ( 1 + \cos \theta - \sin \theta ) $$
EDIT: I was trying to derive that in the ground frame before, I probably messed up. Also, I assumed hastily ##A_1 = A_2##.
Just to be clear this was the simplification:
Summary of the solution ( assuming uniform velocity distributions remove integrations - steady flow - incompressible flow):
Mass Continuity:
$$ 0 = ( \boldsymbol {V_1} \cdot d \boldsymbol {A_1} ) + ( \boldsymbol {V_2} \cdot d \boldsymbol {A_2} )$$
$$ \implies A_2 = \frac{V_1}{V_2} \frac{A_1}{\sin \theta} \tag{1}$$
Momentum in the horizontal direction ( the frame is inertial - all velocities in equations now referenced from frame ##cv## traveling with cart ):
$$ \boldsymbol {F} = \rho \left[ \boldsymbol {V_1} ( \boldsymbol {V_1} \cdot d \boldsymbol {A_1} ) + \boldsymbol {V_2} ( \boldsymbol {V_2} \cdot d \boldsymbol {A_2} ) \right] $$
$$ F \boldsymbol {i} = \rho \left[ -V_1\boldsymbol {i} ( -V_1\boldsymbol {i} \cdot 1 \boldsymbol {i} ) + \langle -V_2 \cos \theta \boldsymbol {i} + V_2 \sin \theta \boldsymbol {j} \rangle ( \langle -V_2 \cos \theta \boldsymbol {i} + V_2 \sin \theta \boldsymbol {j} \rangle \cdot \langle 0 \boldsymbol {i} + 1 \boldsymbol {j} \rangle) \right] $$
$$F = \rho \left[ V_1^2 A_1 - V_2^2 \cos \theta \sin \theta A_2\right] \tag{2}$$
And Bernoulli's a reduction of the Energy Equation:
$$ \frac{P_1}{\rho g } + \frac{V_1^2}{2g} = \frac{P_2}{\rho g } + \frac{V_2^2}{2g} $$
$$ \implies V_1 = V_2 \tag{3}$$
Combining (1),(2), and (3) results in:
$$ F = \rho V_1^2 A_1 ( 1 - \cos \theta ) $$
so as a "Drag Coefficient" in ## \frac{1}{2} \rho A C_d V^2 ##
$$C_d = 2 ( 1-\cos\theta )$$
So anyhow, I know its a gross simplification but text list the drag coefficient of a cube ( suspended in flow ) as 1.10. At a right angle ##\theta## this gives 2 since in the textbook flow is over entire surface. I'm sure its vastly to simple but at least it was fun trying.
The factors involving ##\theta## at the end acts like a drag coefficient, with some respectability (as far as I can tell)?
But anyhow you can turn the attention back to what the OP is actually after, which is not what I thought. I appreciate the responses.