Explaining the Equation: ½ mu2 = ½ mv2 + ½ ms2

  • Thread starter Thread starter Disputationem
  • Start date Start date
AI Thread Summary
The equation ½ mu² = ½ mv² + ½ ms² arises from the conservation of energy in elastic collisions, where particle A collides with stationary particle B. The initial kinetic energy of particle A is ½ mu², while after the collision, the kinetic energies of both particles are represented as ½ mv² and ½ ms², respectively. The term "s" represents the speed of the second particle after the collision, not acceleration. The relationship also reflects the Pythagorean theorem when the particles move at right angles post-collision, linking momentum conservation to energy conservation. Understanding this equation clarifies the dynamics of elastic collisions in physics.
Disputationem
Messages
4
Reaction score
0
Homework Statement
I have no idea how this equation (½ mu^2 = ½ mv^2 + ½ ms^2 ) came to be. I understand that work done is equal to final kinetic energy minus initial (w = KE_v - KE_u) but I have no idea how the "1/2 ms^2" portion came to be. Is there anyone that can help me on explaining why the equation is in this manner?
Relevant Equations
½ mu^2 = ½ mv^2 + ½ ms^2 , w = KE_v - KE_u.
My attempt is that I think that, since the equation was derived in an interaction between particles (proving that the angle between the subsequent paths of both particles must be 90 degrees), that acceleration (in m/s^2) is basically negligable since it is so small that it could be rounded off to 0. However, I'm unsure about the validity of this theory, so I would like an explanation for why ½ mu2 = ½ mv2 + ½ ms2 is the way it is.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
May I understand your case that energy and velocity of the body we are watching is before collision
KE_u=\frac{1}{2}mv^2
and after collision
KE_v=\frac{1}{2}mu^2
and s is speed of another body of same mass that I assume it has been at still but starts moving collided by the body mentioned above ?
 
The final terms
Disputationem said:
Homework Statement:: I have no idea how this equation (½ mu^2 = ½ mv^2 + ½ ms^2 ) came to be. I understand that work done is equal to final kinetic energy minus initial (w = KE_v - KE_u) but I have no idea how the "1/2 ms^2" portion came to be. Is there anyone that can help me on explaining why the equation is in this manner?
Relevant Equations:: ½ mu^2 = ½ mv^2 + ½ ms^2 , w = KE_v - KE_u.

My attempt is that I think that, since the equation was derived in an interaction between particles (proving that the angle between the subsequent paths of both particles must be 90 degrees), that acceleration (in m/s^2) is basically negligable since it is so small that it could be rounded off to 0. However, I'm unsure about the validity of this theory, so I would like an explanation for why ½ mu2 = ½ mv2 + ½ ms2 is the way it is.
Aplologies if I'm wrong, but from your wording, it seems like you believe the term "½ ms^2” is a value of acceleration. (a=0.5 m/s²).

This would not make sense because you can’t add an acceleration to an energy.

To make sense, ‘s’ needs to be the symbol for the speed of some object. (It's a bad choice of a symbol for speed though!)

For example, the equation would be valid in this situation:

Particle A (mass m, speed u) collides elastically with particle B (mass m, stationary). After the collision A's speed is v and B’s speed is s.

Since kinetic energy is conserved in elastic collisions:
½mu² = ½mv² + ½ms²
 
  • Like
Likes Disputationem
[moved my response here from the other thread]
Disputationem said:
I never understood why the equation was ½ mu2 = ½ mv2 + ½ ms2 in the first place. I understand the mu and mv portion, but I don't quite understand the ms part of the equation. What is it derived from?
The equation comes from conservation of energy. ##u## is the initial velocity of the incoming proton. The initial velocity of the other proton is zero. So the total kinetic energy is ##\frac{1}{2}mu^2##.

[In the other thread, context is supplied. This is an elastic impact of an arriving proton with an equally massive proton that begins at rest]

After the collision, the incoming proton moves away with velocity ##v## and the other proton moves away with velocity ##s##. So the total kinetic energy is ##\frac{1}{2}mv^2 + \frac{1}{2}ms^2##.

By conservation of energy, initial energy is equal to final energy so ##\frac{1}{2}mu^2=\frac{1}{2}mv^2 + \frac{1}{2}ms^2##.The equation also looks very much like a statement of the Pythagorean theorem.

If one looks at conservation of momentum then the momentum of the incoming proton ##m\vec{u}## must be equal to the sum of the momenta of the two departing protons, ##m\vec{v} + m\vec{s}##. We can divide out the ##m## and get ##\vec{u}=\vec{v} + \vec{s}##.

If the two departing protons move away at right angles to one another then the magnitude of the vector sum is given by the Pythagorean theorem so that ##|\vec{u}|^2=|\vec{v}|^2+|\vec{s}|^2##. One can multiply by ##\frac{1}{2}m## to recover the original equation: ##\frac{1}{2}mu^2=\frac{1}{2}mv^2 + \frac{1}{2}ms^2## and all is well.

Conversely, if the departing velocities do not have the Pythagorean relationship with the arrival velocity then the angle between the departure velocities will not be a right angle.
 
  • Like
Likes Disputationem
Looks like you tried to say that in a collision the sum of k.e. before the collision = sum of k.e. after.
But you have to add other sources of energy in addition to k.e.
Say a bomb goes off at the collision.. Obviously, k.e. before collision ##\neq## k.e. after collision:
k.e. after = k.e before + energy of explosion going to k.e.

Note that conservation of momentum is not affected by the explosion since the explosion is not an externally applied force.
 
Steve4Physics said:
The final terms

Aplologies if I'm wrong, but from your wording, it seems like you believe the term "½ ms^2” is a value of acceleration. (a=0.5 m/s²).

This would not make sense because you can’t add an acceleration to an energy.

To make sense, ‘s’ needs to be the symbol for the speed of some object. (It's a bad choice of a symbol for speed though!)

For example, the equation would be valid in this situation:

Particle A (mass m, speed u) collides elastically with particle B (mass m, stationary). After the collision A's speed is v and B’s speed is s.

Since kinetic energy is conserved in elastic collisions:
½mu² = ½mv² + ½ms2
Steve4Physics said:
Thank you so much! I was so confused about why they were mentioning displacement instead of acceleration all of a sudden and now I know!
 
jbriggs444 said:
[moved my response here from the other thread]

The equation comes from conservation of energy. ##u## is the initial velocity of the incoming proton. The initial velocity of the other proton is zero. So the total kinetic energy is ##\frac{1}{2}mu^2##.

[In the other thread, context is supplied. This is an elastic impact of an arriving proton with an equally massive proton that begins at rest]

After the collision, the incoming proton moves away with velocity ##v## and the other proton moves away with velocity ##s##. So the total kinetic energy is ##\frac{1}{2}mv^2 + \frac{1}{2}ms^2##.

By conservation of energy, initial energy is equal to final energy so ##\frac{1}{2}mu^2=\frac{1}{2}mv^2 + \frac{1}{2}ms^2##.The equation also looks very much like a statement of the Pythagorean theorem.

If one looks at conservation of momentum then the momentum of the incoming proton ##m\vec{u}## must be equal to the sum of the momenta of the two departing protons, ##m\vec{v} + m\vec{s}##. We can divide out the ##m## and get ##\vec{u}=\vec{v} + \vec{s}##.

If the two departing protons move away at right angles to one another then the magnitude of the vector sum is given by the Pythagorean theorem so that ##|\vec{u}|^2=|\vec{v}|^2+|\vec{s}|^2##. One can multiply by ##\frac{1}{2}m## to recover the original equation: ##\frac{1}{2}mu^2=\frac{1}{2}mv^2 + \frac{1}{2}ms^2## and all is well.

Conversely, if the departing velocities do not have the Pythagorean relationship with the arrival velocity then the angle between the departure velocities will not be a right angle.
Your reply is complex but it makes a bundle of sense! Thanks a mil!
 
Back
Top