Fabry-Perot Interferometer: Energy Conservation

smithg86
Messages
58
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



This is regarding a Fabry-Perot Interferometer with identical mirrors:

If you shine a beam of light on a 99% reflecting mirror, 1% goes through and the other 99% is reflected. But if a second mirror is placed behind the first one, where there is only 1% of the light present, somehow 100% of the light appears. Explain this, also explain how energy is conserved.

Homework Equations



I_t = I_0 * {T^2 / (1-R^2)} * { 1 / (1 + F * sin^2(\Delta/2))}

F = finesse = 4R / (1-R)^2

I_t = transmitted intensity
I_0 = original intensity

T = transmittance
R = reflectance

\Delta = \delta + \delta_r
\delta = phase difference per round trip between mirrors
\delta_r = phase difference due to reflection = 0 or pi

The Attempt at a Solution



I understand mathematically why it's true. If you set \Delta to an integer multiple of pi, then sin \Delta = 0 and then

I_t/I_0 = {T^2 / (1-R^2)} * { 1 / (1 + F*(0)) }

I_t/I_0 = T^2 / (1 - R^2) = 1

so I_t = I_0, so 100% of the light appears.

I really don't know how to explain this physically. Help?
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Can you write down the question EXACTLY as it was given to you?

I can't seem to make much sense of it. First of all, the interferometer set-up I'm familiar with has the mirrors facing each other, not one behind the other. Secondly, in this geometry, I expect that only about half the incident power is transmitted through in the forward direction, the rest is transmitted backwards.

What does the question mean by "100% of the light appears"? Appears where?

I may be completely off here, so it would help if someone else takes a look.
 
"I really don't know how to explain this physically. Help?"

Has anyone an answer to this question?

That is the question of my life too.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top