pleasehelpmeno
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Hi can anyone tell me why in the fermionic number operator case:
<0|N/V|0>= \sum_{\pm r}\int d^3 k a^{\dagger}(t,r)a(t,r)
because if:
N=a^{\dagger}(t,k)a(t,k)then after Fourier decomposition surely one gets:
\int d^3 r d^3 r \frac{1}{(2Pi)^{3}} a^{\dagger}(t,r)a(t,rk)
and when Fourier decomposing back i don't see how one can get the creation/annhilation operators as a function of r or how to get this sum term or the d^3k term. This V term gives just a \frac{1}{V} term in the final integral.
<0|N/V|0>= \sum_{\pm r}\int d^3 k a^{\dagger}(t,r)a(t,r)
because if:
N=a^{\dagger}(t,k)a(t,k)then after Fourier decomposition surely one gets:
\int d^3 r d^3 r \frac{1}{(2Pi)^{3}} a^{\dagger}(t,r)a(t,rk)
and when Fourier decomposing back i don't see how one can get the creation/annhilation operators as a function of r or how to get this sum term or the d^3k term. This V term gives just a \frac{1}{V} term in the final integral.