fermio said:
\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{x}{1+x^2\sin^2 x}=\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{1}{2x\sin^2 x+x^2 2\sin x\cos x}
Well, L'Hospital does not work for cases, in which, the limit does not exist.
Mattofix said:
Nope.
You can think like this: as
x tends to infinity, sin(
x) can take any value on the interval [-1, 1].
If sin(
x) = 0, your expression becomes: x.
And if sin(
x) = 1, then your expression will become: x / (1 + x
2)
So now, we'll choose 2 sequences (namely, x
n, and x'
n),
both of which grow without bounds, and sin(x
n) = 0, sin(x'
n) = 1, for all
n.
We can choose x
n = 2n(pi), and x'
n = pi/2 + 2n(pi).
The 2 sequences above satisfy all requirements above (you can check it yourself).
What can you say about the 2 limits:
\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{x_n}{1 + x_n ^2 \sin ^ 2 (x_n)} , \quad n \in \mathbb{N}
and:
\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{x'_n}{1 + x'_n ^2 \sin ^ 2 (x'_n)} , \quad n \in \mathbb{N}
From there, what can you conclude about the limit:
\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \frac{x}{1 + x ^2 \sin ^ 2 (x)}?
Can you go from here? :)