This is the way I was taught to do it :
2\sin (x-\frac {\pi}{3})= 1
\sin (x-\frac {\pi}{3})= \frac {1} {2}
Let q =x-\frac {\pi}{3}
\sin (q)= \frac {1} {2}
Where is the \sin q = \frac {1}{2} ?
At \frac {\pi}{6}, \frac {5\pi }{6}
Thus : q_{1} =\frac {\pi}{6} , q_{2}=\frac {5\pi }{6}
We're not done. We still have to solve the x. Note that I was supposed to add 2 Pi to q 1 and q 2, but if you do it separately, you will see the solutions would not be needed since they are outside of 2 Pi when we add pi /3.
Continuing : Simply setting the q's equal to x - pi /3
x-\frac {\pi}{3} =\frac {\pi}{6}
x-\frac {\pi}{3} =\frac {5\pi }{6}
Solving, we get the solutions to be : x_{1} = \frac {\pi}{2},x_{2} = \frac {7\pi}{6},
In your calculator, if you graph these two functions, you will see the solutions to be those as noted.