Finding Stationary Wavefunction with a Line Potential

doggydan42
Messages
169
Reaction score
18

Homework Statement


A particle of mass m in one dimension has a potential:
$$V(x) =
\begin{cases}
V_0 & x > 0 \\
0 & x \leq 0
\end{cases}
$$

Find ##\psi(x)## for energies ##0 < E < V_0##, with parameters
$$k^2 = \frac{2mE}{\hbar^2}$$
and
$$\kappa^2 = \frac{2m(V_0 - E)}{\hbar^2}$$

Use coefficients such that ##\psi(0) = -\frac{k}{\kappa}##

Homework Equations


The time-independent schrodinger equation:
$$\hat H \psi(x) = E \psi(x)$$

The Attempt at a Solution


I started with the potential being 0, which gave.
$$\psi''(x) = -k^2\psi(x)$$
This would give solutions in the form
$$\psi(x \leq 0) = Asin(kx) + Bcos(kx)$$
For the potential ##V_0##, I got
$$\psi''(x) = -\kappa^2\psi(x)$$
Similarly, $$\psi(x > 0) = Asin(\kappa x) + Bcos(\kappa x)$$

I was not sure how to choose coefficients.
I was thinking that for ##x \leq 0##, I could find ##B = -\frac{k}{\kappa}##. Though I could not figure out what to do for A, and for ##x > 0##.

Thank you in advance
 
Physics news on Phys.org
With ##0<E<V_0##, one of your ##k^2## is < 0, the other > 0. How do you solve the Schroedinger equation for each half of hte axis, exactly ?
 
BvU said:
With ##0<E<V_0##, one of your ##k^2## is < 0, the other > 0. How do you solve the Schroedinger equation for each half of hte axis, exactly ?
Both ##k^2## and ##\kappa^2## should be greater than 0. ##k^2 = 2mE/hbar^2## and ##\kappa^2 = 2m(V_0-E)/hbar^2## E is greater than 0, and ##V_0 - E > 0##. To solve the wavefunction, I used the potential for each half. For one half, I just substituted 0. For the other, I substituted ##V_0##. These gave me a solution in the form of a superposition of waves. I have one boundary condition to find one of the coefficients, the coefficient of the cosine should be ##-k/\kappa## for both x > 0 and x <= 0. My issue was finding the coefficient for the sine. There should be some boundary condition using ##\psi'(x)##, but this was not given, and I did not know how to go about finding it.
 
Show how you solve the Schoedinger equation for ##x>0##. In detail, in particular wrt the signs.

##\psi'## should be continuous.
 
BvU said:
Show how you solve the Schoedinger equation for ##x>0##. In detail, in particular wrt the signs.

##\psi'## should be continuous.
I used ##\hat H \psi = E \psi##. Using ##V(x) = V_0##:
$$-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\psi''(x) + V_0 \psi(x) = E\psi(x)$$
$$\psi''(x) -\frac{2m}{\hbar^2}V_0\psi(x) = -\frac{2m}{\hbar^2} E\psi(x)$$
$$\psi''(x) = \frac{2m}{\hbar^2}V_0\psi(x)-\frac{2m}{\hbar^2} E\psi(x) = \frac{2m}{\hbar^2} (V_0 - E)\psi(x)$$
Assuming a solution in the form ##\psi(x) = e^{\lambda x}## gives ##\lambda = \pm \kappa##.
I see where I went wrong with my initial solution; however, this still gives a superposition of the two functions:
$$\psi(x > 0) = Ae^{\kappa x}+ Be^{-\kappa x}$$.
The initial condition would give that ##A+B = -\frac{k}{\kappa}##. Another condition is needed to solve for A and B.
 
doggydan42 said:
this still gives a superposition of the two functions
Almost correct... : a combination of two functions in different domains
doggydan42 said:
The initial condition
There are no initial conditions, only boundary conditions: ##\psi## and ##\psi'## have to be continuous at ##x=0##.

How many integration constants do you actually have ? Any further conditions ?
 
Last edited:
BvU said:
Almost correct... : a combination of two functions in different domains
There are no initial conditions, only boundary conditions: ##\psi## and ##\psi'## have to be continuous at ##x=0##.

How many integration constants do you actually have ? Any further conditions ?
The conditions given are that ##\psi(0) = -\frac{k}{\kappa}## and that it is not normalizable. Since V(x) has a discontinuity but not a delta-function, ##\psi'## and ##\psi## are continuous, as you have stated.

Using the first condition:
For ##x \leq 0##,
$$\psi(0) = Asin(0) + Bcos(0) = B = -\frac{k}{\kappa}$$
For ##x > 0##,
$$\psi(0) = A'e^0 + B' e^0 = A' + B' = -\frac{k}{\kappa}$$, where A' and B' are the coefficients for ##x > 0## to be distinct from ##x \leq 0##.
Since ##\psi'## is continuous, ##\psi'(0)## is the same for ##x \leq 0## and ##x > 0##.
So,
For ##x \leq 0##,
$$\psi'(0) = Akcos(0)-Bksin(0) = Ak$$
For ##x > 0##,
$$\psi'(0) = A'\kappa-B'\kappa$$

I need one more equation, since there are 4 variables. I have 3 equations for these four variables:
$$ Ak = A'\kappa-B'\kappa$$
$$B = -\frac{k}{\kappa}$$
$$A' + B' = -\frac{k}{\kappa}$$
 
Good you put quotes behind two of the constants. I can deduce you have four integration constants. Two conditions pus a forced value for ##\psi(0)## leaves one opening. What about the behaviour of ##\psi## for ##x\rightarrow \pm\infty ## ?

We come to the conclusion there are no normalizable steady state solutions (hence the ##\psi(0)## condition).

neveretheless the case is of substantial interest; cf a free particle: ##\psi(x)## can not be normalized there either.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solution_of_Schr%C3%B6dinger_equation_for_a_step_potential
 
BvU said:
Good you put quotes behind two of the constants. I can deduce you have four integration constants. Two conditions pus a forced value for ##\psi(0)## leaves one opening. What about the behaviour of ##\psi## for ##x\rightarrow \pm\infty ## ?

We come to the conclusion there are no normalizable steady state solutions (hence the ##\psi(0)## condition).

neveretheless the case is of substantial interest; cf a free particle: ##\psi(x)## can not be normalized there either.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solution_of_Schr%C3%B6dinger_equation_for_a_step_potential
Should the behavior of ##\psi## for ##x \rightarrow \infty## be 0?

If so, then 0 = B', since for ##x \rightarrow \infty##, ##e^{\kappa x} \rightarrow \infty## and ##e^{-\kappa x} \rightarrow 0##.
Using A' = 0, ##B' = \frac{-k}{\kappa}##, and ##Ak = -\frac{-k}{\kappa}\kappa = k##, so ##A = 1##.
Overall:
$$A = 1, B = -\frac{k}{\kappa}, A' = 0, B' = \frac{-k}{\kappa}$$
 
  • #10
doggydan42 said:
Should the behavior of ##\psi## for ##x \rightarrow \infty## be 0?
yes, it should go to zero fast enough to make it quadratically integrable.
[edit: but see #8]

Others use a C instead of a B' (look at his case II, p 20 ff)
 
Last edited:
Back
Top