Finding the limit of trigonometric functions?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the limit of a trigonometric function as x approaches 0, specifically the expression tan(6x) / sin(2x). Participants are exploring various approaches to evaluate this limit using known limits and theorems related to trigonometric functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to manipulate the expression by separating terms and applying the limit theorem sin(x)/x = 1. There are questions about the correctness of their steps and whether they are on the right track.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active with participants sharing their thought processes and questioning their methods. Some suggest using L'Hôpital's Rule, while others express uncertainty about their approaches. There is no explicit consensus on the best method yet, but several lines of reasoning are being explored.

Contextual Notes

Some participants mention that they have not yet learned L'Hôpital's Rule and are currently focusing on limits involving trigonometric functions. There is a reference to a previous post that may have provided clarification on a related aspect of the problem.

r_swayze
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Im having trouble with this problem here:

x-->0 tan6x / sin2x

So far I only have:

(sin6x / cos6x) / (2sinx cosx)

What would be the next step? Multiply the reciprocal?
Also, could somebody tell me if I am doing this problem right?

x--> 0 (sin (cosx)) / secx

sin (cosx) / 1/cosx

sin (cosx) cosx

sin (1) 1 = sin 1
 
Last edited:
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Do you know this limit?
[tex]\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} \frac{sin(x)}{x} = 1[/tex]
 
yes, but I don't know how to get that point
 
just thought of something but I don't know if its right. Am I suppose to separate sin6x and sinx and then apply the sin(x)/x = 1 theorem?

(sin6x/1)(1/cos6x)
------------------
(sinx/1) 2cosx

then multiply by 1/x and apply the theorem?

6 / cosx
---------
2 cosx

Does this sound right? I feel like I am off track :/
 
sounds like extra complication, do you know l'hospital's rule?

(that said end up in a similar place)
 
l'hospital's is the way to go. did not try it with this problem but
one of the best "tools" i ever learned
 
r_swayze said:
just thought of something but I don't know if its right. Am I suppose to separate sin6x and sinx and then apply the sin(x)/x = 1 theorem?

(sin6x/1)(1/cos6x)
------------------
(sinx/1) 2cosx

then multiply by 1/x and apply the theorem?

6 / cosx
---------
2 cosx

Does this sound right? I feel like I am off track :/

You'd like to get sin(6x)/6x and 2x/sin(2x), so it's just a matter of multiplying by 1 in some form that gets you there. Note that since sin(x)/x approaches 1 as x approaches 0, x/sin(x) has the same limit. Also tan(x)/x approaches 1 as x approaches 0. This is actually easier than L'Hopital's Rule, I think, since there's the possibility of screwing up a derivative there.
 
no we haven't learned l'hospital's yet, just started adding this week with trig and limits.

But did anyone check my second posting after Mark44? Does that look right to you guys?

edit: nvm someone answered
 

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