Finding total energy as a function of the Fermi Energy

hb1547
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Homework Statement


"The numerator of this fraction:

\overline{E}=\frac{\int \! E N(E)D(E)dE}{\int \! N(E)D(E)dE}
(N(E) is the number of particles in an energy state, D(E) is the density of states)

is the total (as opposed to the average particle) energy, which we'll call U_{total} here (In other words, the total system energy U is the average particle energy \overline{E} times the total number of particles N.) Calculate U_{total} as a function of E_{Fermi} and use this to show that the minimum (T=0) energy of a gas of spin-1/2 fermions may be written as:

U_{total}=\frac{3}{10} (\frac{3\pi^2 \hbar^3}{m^{3/2}V})^{2/3} N^{5/3}

Homework Equations


- The above.
D(E) = \frac{(2s+1)m^{3/2}V}{\pi^2 \hbar^3 \sqrt{2}}E^{1/2}
N(E)_{FD} = \frac{1}{e^{(E-E_{f})/k_{B}T}+1}
N(E_{F})_{FD} = \frac{1}{2}
\overline{E} = k_{B}T

The Attempt at a Solution


I'm having a hard time deciding what should be multiplied together, and in which ways.

I thought it would be N(E_{F})_{FD} * \overline{E} (the ones above), yet that obviously isn't a function of E_{Fermi}, it's just a function of temperature.

I guess I'm having a hard time deciding which equations I should be using.
 
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Just finished the same problem. I calculated the total energy using the numerator term in the average energy equation. You can integrate from 0 to E Fermi because T = 0. Then plug in the Fermi energy equation from the book (i'm assuming this is from Harris). It's eqn 9-42. After a lot of cancelation you get the expression given in the book.
 
Yeah this is the Harris problem haha.

So I plug in the Fermi energy equation for E in the top, as well as N(E)_{FD} and D(E)? Sounds good, I'll try it and see where it gets me. Thanks, I was just leaving the term as E and it wasn't working too well
 
Hmm actually I'm still having some trouble with this one. I get why you can integrate from 0 to E_{Fermi}, yet I'm not following when you plug in the equation for E_{Fermi}. Did you do it before or after integrating?

If before, I keep getting to an integral I can't solve:
\int_{0}^{E_{F}} \! \frac{E^{1/2}}{e^{(E-E_{F})/k_{b}T}+1} dE
(there are a bunch of constants on the outside as well)

If after, not a lot seems to cancel out -- the integral just becomes more complicated
 
Remember that in
<br /> \overline{E}=\frac{\int \! E N(E)D(E)dE}{\int \! N(E)D(E)dE}<br />
The numerator represents the total energy. This is what you want to use to calculate it. Your limits are from 0 to Fermi energy. The occupational number (N(E)) turns to 1, because at T = 0 it is a step function equaling to 1 up to the Fermi energy. The density function (D(E)) is given in the book Eqn 9-39. Do not forget to include the E that is not part of the density function. After integrating, you should have total energy in terms of Fermi energy. Now plug in the expression for Fermi energy Eqn 9-42, and simplify.
 
OH I get it -- that clears it up a lot. Thanks! I was able to get it from there, I really appreciate the help!
 
To solve this, I first used the units to work out that a= m* a/m, i.e. t=z/λ. This would allow you to determine the time duration within an interval section by section and then add this to the previous ones to obtain the age of the respective layer. However, this would require a constant thickness per year for each interval. However, since this is most likely not the case, my next consideration was that the age must be the integral of a 1/λ(z) function, which I cannot model.
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