steven cheung said:
i need some time to think,because i learn limit on 3 days
The more theoretical point is as follows.
Say you have two continuous functions ##f:\mathbb R \to \mathbb R## and ##g:\mathbb R \to \mathbb R##.
Does ##\displaystyle \lim_{x\rightarrow -1} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)}## exist, and if so, what is the limit?
If ##g(-1) \neq 0##, the answer is easy: ##\displaystyle \lim_{x\rightarrow -1} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=\frac{f(-1)}{g(-1)}##.
It get's more complicated if ##g(-1) = 0##. Then just plugging in ##x=-1## would give ##\displaystyle \lim_{x\rightarrow -1} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=\frac{f(-1)}{0}##.
Now dividing a real number by 0 is not possible, so if, for example, ##f(-1)=7##, we can conclude that ##\displaystyle \lim_{x\rightarrow -1} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)}## doesn't exist (or maybe is ##\pm \infty##).
It is only when plugging in ##x=-1## gives ##\frac{0}{0}## (that's called an indeterminate form), that a finite limit may exist. Notice the
may. It's not sure the limit will exist, but it is possible. It will depend on the precise behavior of ##f## and ##g## near ##x=-1##.