First time poster - Hard limit proof

kenb1993
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Homework Statement



Suppose an and bn are sequences where bn is increasing and approaching positive infinity. Assume that lim n->∞ [ ( an+1 - an ) / ( bn+1 - bn) ]= L, where L is a real number. Prove that lim n->∞ [ an / bn ] = L.

Homework Equations



Limit theorems

The Attempt at a Solution



I tried making an argument with the basis that both sequences have the same number of terms, so L is the limit of (an+1)/(bn+1) and thus also (an/bn)
 
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kenb1993 said:

Homework Statement



Suppose an and bn are sequences where bn is increasing and approaching positive infinity. Assume that lim n->∞ [ ( an+1 - an ) / ( bn+1 - bn) ]= L, where L is a real number. Prove that lim n->∞ [ an / bn ] = L.
Given \epsilon > 0, we can find N \in \mathbb{N} such that
(L - \epsilon)(b_{n+1} - b_n) \leq a_{n+1}-a_n \leq (L + \epsilon)(b_{n+1} - b_n)
for all n \geq N. This is true by definition of the limit and by the fact that b_{n+1} > b_n.

Big hint: now try summing this inequality starting at n = N up to some arbitrary value, say n = M. Can you conclude anything as M \rightarrow \infty?
 
So starting at a certain value N in the sequence, when you take the infinite sum of the inequality an and an+1 would tend to positive infinity along with bn+1 but I can't tie an argument together to actually prove the result.
 
kenb1993 said:

Homework Statement



Suppose an and bn are sequences where bn is increasing and approaching positive infinity. Assume that lim n->∞ [ ( an+1 - an ) / ( bn+1 - bn) ]= L, where L is a real number. Prove that lim n->∞ [ an / bn ] = L.

Homework Equations



Limit theorems

The Attempt at a Solution



I tried making an argument with the basis that both sequences have the same number of terms, so L is the limit of (an+1)/(bn+1) and thus also (an/bn)
That doesn't make any sense. Both sequences are infinite. That don't have a "number of terms". It is however, true that the limits of the two sequences you mention are the same but that really doesn't matter. The sequence (an+1- an)/(bn+1- bn[/b]) is NOT (an+1/bn+1)- (an/bn).
 
kenb1993 said:
So starting at a certain value N in the sequence, when you take the infinite sum of the inequality an and an+1 would tend to positive infinity along with bn+1 but I can't tie an argument together to actually prove the result.
Try writing out explicitly what you get if you sum the inequality in my previous post from n = N to n = M-1. Notice that all three terms will "telescope." What is the result? Write it out in detail.
 
After manipulation were left with (L−ϵ)(1-bN/bM) + aN/bM≤aM/bM≤(L+ϵ)(1-bN/bM) + aN/bM.

Then would bN/bM converge to zero and we are done?
 
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kenb1993 said:
After manipulation were left with (L−ϵ)(1-bN/bM) + aN/bM≤aM/bM≤(L+ϵ)(1-bN/bM) + aN/bM.

Then would bN/bM converge to zero and we are done?

Well, you need both b_N/b_M and a_N/b_M to converge to zero as M \rightarrow \infty. Do they?
 
I think that's safe to assume without proof since bn is increasing. Thank for your help.
 
kenb1993 said:
I think that's safe to assume without proof since bn is increasing. Thank for your help.

It's not because b_n is increasing. It's because b_n is diverging to positive infinity (a fact you haven't used yet). Therefore 1/b_n is converging to...?
 
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Zero haha. Thanks. xn
 
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