Fourier components of vector potential

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the nature of the coefficients \( a^{(\mu)}_\mathbf{k}(t) \) and \( \bar{a}^{(\mu)}_\mathbf{k}(t) \) in the equation for the vector potential \( \mathbf{A}(\mathbf{r}, t) \). Participants conclude that these coefficients are complex due to their relationship with the complex basis vectors \( \mathbf{e}^{(1)}(\mathbf{k}) \) and \( \mathbf{e}^{(-1)}(\mathbf{k}) \). The presence of the bar indicates complex conjugation, reinforcing that both coefficients must be treated as complex numbers. This understanding is crucial for accurately interpreting the vector potential in quantum electrodynamics.

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dkin
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Hi all,

I was reading the http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quanti...d#Electromagnetic_field_and_vector_potential" and I am a little bit confused.

In this equation defining the vector potential

[itex]\mathbf{A}(\mathbf{r}, t) = \sum_\mathbf{k}\sum_{\mu=-1,1} \left( \mathbf{e}^{(\mu)}(\mathbf{k}) a^{(\mu)}_\mathbf{k}(t) \, e^{i\mathbf{k}\cdot\mathbf{r}} + \bar{\mathbf{e}}^{(\mu)}(\mathbf{k}) \bar{a}^{(\mu)}_\mathbf{k}(t) \, e^{-i\mathbf{k}\cdot\mathbf{r}} \right)[/itex]

are the [itex]a^{(\mu)}_\mathbf{k}(t)[/itex] and [itex]\bar{a}^{(\mu)}_\mathbf{k}(t)[/itex] complex or real?

On my first reading I assumed complex as the text says the bar indicates complex conjugates but the vector potential is later defined as a linear addition with complex [itex]\mathbf{e}^{(1)}(\mathbf{k})[/itex] and [itex]\mathbf{e}^{(-1)}(\mathbf{k})[/itex] basis vectors so why would these vectors have complex multipliers? They are also not in bold font which would indicate scalers.

Is the bar in this case simply a label for the scaler?

Please help!
 
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Fourier coefficients of a function are generally complex, because they are the Fourier transform of the function.
 
atyy said:
Fourier coefficients of a function are generally complex, because they are the Fourier transform of the function.

Thanks for the reply, I think the Fourier coefficients will be complex regardless as the [itex]\mathbf{e}^{(1)}(\mathbf{k})[/itex] and [itex]\mathbf{e}^{(-1)}(\mathbf{k})[/itex] vectors are complex therefore [itex]\mathbf{e}^{(1)}(\mathbf{k}) a^{(1)}_\mathbf{k}(t)[/itex] should be complex regardless of whether [itex]a^{(1)}_\mathbf{k}(t)[/itex] is.. I think.
 
Last edited:

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