Fourier Cosine Transform and Complex Exponential Solution for Homework Problem

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Homework Statement



given 2 functions f and g related by a cosine transform

g( \alpha ) = \int_{0}^{\infty}dx f(x)Cos( \alpha x)

then if the integral

\int_{0}^{\infty}dx f(x)exp(cx)

exists for every positive or negative 'c' then should it be equal to

\int_{0}^{\infty}dx f(x)exp(cx)= \frac{g(ic)+g(-ic)}{2} ??


Homework Equations



g( \alpha ) = \int_{0}^{\infty}dx f(x)Cos( \alpha x)


The Attempt at a Solution



where i have used the Euler identity to express the cosine as a linear combination of complex

exponentials.
 
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Yes, that should work. Unfortunately, since you chose not to show us what you did, I can't say where you might have made a mistake.
 
thanks Hallsoftivy.. i think this would be the result since

\int_{0}^{\infty}dx f(x)exp(cx) should be real

then i used Euler's formula so 2exp(cx)Cos(ax)=exp(iax+cx)+exp(-iax+cx)

then somehow (of course this all is completely nonrigorous) expanding the exponential into a real and complex part, the contribution to the integral would come from

Cos(ax+icx) and cos(ax-icx) this kernel is precisely the Kernel of a Fourier cosine transform with complex argument.
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
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