Fourier Series Question: Express q(t) as a Fourier Expansion

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around expressing the charge q(t) on a capacitor as a Fourier series expansion, specifically for a saw-tooth wave. The user initially struggles with the calculations and arrives at an expression for q(t) that differs from the book's answer. A key point raised is that the terms involving even n in the Fourier series vanish, which simplifies the summation to only odd n. This leads to the conclusion that the user's results are equivalent to the book's answer when properly adjusted for the summation of odd terms. The conversation highlights the importance of careful notation and understanding the properties of the Fourier series.
Nylex
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I got this question out of a book, but I can't get the book's answer. Since I can't draw, I'll just describe the graph given. Express q(t) as a Fourier series expansion.

The charge q(t) on the plates of a capacitor at time t is shown as a saw-tooth wave with period 2\pi and its peak is at t = \pi, where q(t) = Q.

At first, I tried to use the expressions for open boundary conditions (as q(t) is 0 at t = 0 and t = 2 pi). I got stuck, so I started again, with

q(t) = \frac{a_{0}}{\sqrt{L}} + \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_{n} \left(\frac{2}{L}\right)^\frac{1}{2} \cos \frac{2\pi nt}{L} + \sum_{n=1}^\infty b_{n} \left(\frac{2}{L}\right)^\frac{1}{2} \sin \frac{2\pi nt}{L}

where

a_{0} = \int_{0}^{L} \left(\frac{1}{L}\right)^\frac{1}{2} q(t) dt

a_{n} = \int_{0}^{L} \left(\frac{2}{L}\right)^\frac{1}{2} \cos \frac{2\pi nt}{L} q(t) dt

b_{n} = \int_{0}^{L} \left(\frac{2}{L}\right)^\frac{1}{2} \sin \frac{2\pi nt}{L} q(t) dt

Now, since the saw-tooth is symmetric, there was no need to calculate b_{n}, since they'd have been 0 anyway.

I represented q(t) using top hat functions:

q(t) = \left[\theta(t) - \theta(t - \frac{L}{2})\right]\frac{2tQ}{L} + \left[\theta(t - \frac{L}{2}) - \theta(t - L)\right]\frac{2(L - t)Q}{L}

Then I used that to calculate a_{0}[/tex] and a_{n}, using L = 2\pi<br /> <br /> After pages of working out, I got:<br /> <br /> a_{0} = Q\pi \left(\frac{1}{2\pi}\right)^\frac{1}{2}<br /> <br /> a_{n} = \left(\frac{1}{\pi}\right)^\frac{1}{2} \frac{Q}{\pi} \frac{2}{n^2} (\cos n\pi - 1)<br /> <br /> So,<br /> <br /> q(t) = Q\left[\frac{1}{2} + \frac{2}{\pi^2} \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{\cos nt \cos (n\pi - 1)}{n^2}\right]<br /> <br /> The book&#039;s answer is q(t) = Q\left[\frac{1}{2} - \frac{4}{\pi^2} \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{\cos (2n -1)t}{(2n - 1)^2}\right]<br /> <br /> I don&#039;t know where I&#039;ve gone wrong. I can&#039;t post all my working, as it&#039;s a lot and would take forever to LaTeX.
 
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Nylex said:
So,

q(t) = Q\left[\frac{1}{2} + \frac{2}{\pi^2} \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{\cos nt \cos (n\pi-1)}{n^2}\right]

The book's answer is q(t) = Q\left[\frac{1}{2} - \frac{4}{\pi^2} \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{\cos (2n -1)t}{(2n - 1)^2}\right]

I don't know where I've gone wrong. I can't post all my working, as it's a lot and would take forever to LaTeX.

Well, your results are equivalent :)) I'm poor at LaTeX, but I'll try to explain.

First, there is a typo in a final result (I suspect it is a typo), there should be

q(t) = Q\left[\frac{1}{2} + \frac{2}{\pi^2} \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{\cos nt (\cos (n\pi)-1)}{n^2}\right]

(notice the braces in second cos), but you got it right in a_n expression.

OK, now whenever n is even, expression under sumation is equal to 0 because (\cos (n\pi)-1) = 0 for even values of n.

So, we have to sum only if n is odd, otherwise written as n = 2k-1, for k going from 1 to inf.

For odd numbers (\cos (n\pi)-1) = -2

If you put it all together you can write
\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{-2\cos (2k-1)t}{(2k-1)^2}\right]

you can take the "-2" out of summation, and then you get the book's answer.

Hope my explanation was clear,
Cheers
 
Atrus said:
Well, your results are equivalent :)) I'm poor at LaTeX, but I'll try to explain.

First, there is a typo in a final result (I suspect it is a typo), there should be

q(t) = Q\left[\frac{1}{2} + \frac{2}{\pi^2} \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{\cos nt (\cos (n\pi)-1)}{n^2}\right]

(notice the braces in second cos), but you got it right in a_n expression.

OK, now whenever n is even, expression under sumation is equal to 0 because (\cos (n\pi)-1) = 0 for even values of n.

So, we have to sum only if n is odd, otherwise written as n = 2k-1, for k going from 1 to inf.

For odd numbers (\cos (n\pi)-1) = -2

If you put it all together you can write
\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{-2\cos (2k-1)t}{(2k-1)^2}\right]

you can take the "-2" out of summation, and then you get the book's answer.

Hope my explanation was clear,
Cheers

Yay, thanks very much. Yes, I did make a typo with the brackets in my post.

Thanks again :D.
 
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