Fourier Transform of Delta Function: Solving Homework Statement

spaghetti3451
Messages
1,311
Reaction score
31

Homework Statement



Show that \int^{\infty}_{-\infty} e^{-ipt} dt = \delta(t).

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I know that I must Fourier transform \delta(t), but not sure how.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
failexam said:

Homework Statement



Show that \int^{\infty}_{-\infty} e^{-ipt} dt = \delta(t).
You can't. It's not true. The expression on the left is a function of p only, the expression on the right is a function of t only. Now, what is the problem really?

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I know that I must Fourier transform \delta(t), but not sure how.
 
Ok. My mistake: the delta function should be a function of p, not t.
 
failexam said:

Homework Statement



Show that \int^{\infty}_{-\infty} e^{-ipt} dt = \delta(t).

The problem is that this isn't actually true. The integral on the left side doesn't exist.

What is true is that the constant function 1 has a Fourier transform (in the sense of distributions) equal to a Dirac delta function, possibly with a 2 \pi scale factor. However, you need quite a lot of mathematical machinery even to talk about what "in the sense of distributions" means.

If this is for an engineering course where these technicalities don't matter, then argue as follows:

1. The Fourier transform of a Dirac delta function is a constant
2. Therefore the inverse Fourier transform of a constant must be a Dirac delta function
3. Interpret the integral above as the inverse Fourier transform of a constant.

You should be able to prove 1. quite easily using the sampling/sifting property of the delta function. For 2 and 3 you will have to wave your hands a lot, but that's what engineering textbooks do in this case, too.
 
Might I suggest simply placing the delta function in place of f(x) in the formula for the Fourier Transform?
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
Back
Top