Fundamental theorem of calculus

e^(i Pi)+1=0
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\frac{d}{dx} \int_a^b f(x) dx=f(b)

This is something I can churn through mechanically but I never "got." Any links / explanations that can help build my intuition about this would be helpful.
 
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e^(i Pi)+1=0 said:
\frac{d}{dx} \int_a^b f(x)=f(b)

This is something I can churn through mechanically but I never "got." Any links / explanations that can help build my intuition about this would be helpful.

What you have is incorrect, assuming that both a and b are constants.
\frac{d}{dx} \int_a^b f(x) dx =0

The way this is usually presented is like so:

\frac{d}{dx} \int_a^x f(t) dt =f(x)
 
For an explanation, let's assume that F(x) is an antiderivative of f(x). IOW, F'(x) = f(x).
Then
$$ \int_a^x f(t) dt = F(x) - F(a)$$
So $$ d/dx \int_a^x f(t) dt = d/dx( F(x) - F(a)) = F'(x) - 0 = f(x)$$
 
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
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