snoble
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There are equivilant definitions of Galois extensions listed here http://mathworld.wolfram.com/GaloisExtensionField.html but I'm confused about the equivilence of 1 and 2.
What am I doing wrong here? Take K to be the splitting field of X^4-2 over \mathbb{Q}. This is exactly property 1. But if you consider the automorphism of complex conjugation then it fixes the intermediate field \mathbb{Q} \subset (K\cap \mathbb{R})\subset K which contradicts property 2. (yes I am abusing notation slightly. just consider some embedding of K in \mathbb{C} and my intersection makes sense)
I assume I've made a mistake since it's been a while since I've checked these sorts basic properties but where?
What am I doing wrong here? Take K to be the splitting field of X^4-2 over \mathbb{Q}. This is exactly property 1. But if you consider the automorphism of complex conjugation then it fixes the intermediate field \mathbb{Q} \subset (K\cap \mathbb{R})\subset K which contradicts property 2. (yes I am abusing notation slightly. just consider some embedding of K in \mathbb{C} and my intersection makes sense)
I assume I've made a mistake since it's been a while since I've checked these sorts basic properties but where?