MHB GCD of a and b: Proving $gcd(a',b')=1$

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The discussion centers on proving that if \(d = \gcd(a, b)\) and \(a = da'\), \(b = db'\), then \(\gcd(a', b') = 1\). It utilizes Bézout's identity, stating that integers \(r\) and \(s\) exist such that \(d = ra + sb\). By substituting \(a\) and \(b\) with their expressions in terms of \(d\), the equation simplifies to \(1 = ra' + sb'\), leading to the conclusion that \(\gcd(a', b') = 1\). The conversation also touches on the importance of understanding the conditions under which integers are relatively prime. The discussion highlights the necessity of recognizing the implications of the gcd and its properties in number theory.
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$\textsf{Let $d = gcd(a,b)$
If $a=da'$ and $b=db'$,
show that $gcd(a',b')=1$}$
$\textsf{it would follow that then}$
$$d=gcd(da',db')$$
$\textsf{ok I would assume that $a'=1$ and $b'=1$ then}$
$$gcd(1,1)=1$$
$\textit{bk has no answer}$:(
 
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$d=gcd(a,b)$, assuming $d,a,b > 0$
Then there are integers $r$ and $s$ such that $d=ra+sb$

If $a=da'$ and $b=db'$ then $d=rda'+sdb'$
Dividing by d gives: $1=ra'+sb'$

Thus $gcd(a',b')=1$

$d=gcd(a,b)$
$a=da'$ and $b=db'$
If $a'=b'=1$, then $a=b=d$
thus $gcd(d,d)=d$ and $gcd(1,1)=1$

Who is 'bk'?
 
karush said:
$\textsf{Let $d = gcd(a,b)$
If $a=da'$ and $b=db'$,
show that $gcd(a',b')=1$}$
$\textsf{it would follow that then}$
$$d=gcd(da',db')$$
$\textsf{ok I would assume that $a'=1$ and $b'=1$ then}$
$$gcd(1,1)=1$$
$\textit{bk has no answer}$:(

Your book should have this important result:

If $\gcd(a,b)=d$, there exist integers $r,s$ such that $ra+sb=d$.​

Note that the converse is not true: if we can integers $r,s$ such that $ra+sb=d$, we can’t conclude that $d$ is the gcd of $a,b$; all we can say is the the gcd divides $d$. However, if $d=1$, then the converse is also true: in other words,

$a,b$ are relatively prime integers if and only if there exist integers $r,s$ such that $ra+sb=1$.​
 
steenis said:
$d=gcd(a,b)$, assuming $d,a,b > 0$
Then there are integers $r$ and $s$ such that $d=ra+sb$

If $a=da'$ and $b=db'$ then $d=rda'+sdb'$
Dividing by d gives: $1=ra'+sb'$

Thus $gcd(a',b')=1$

Erm... you're using Bézout's identity and its specialized converse here (edit: as Olinguito has just explained).
... but I don't expect the OP to be familiar with those...

And we don't really need those identities.
It suffices to start with: suppose $\gcd(a', b')=e>1$, then...
This leads to a contradiction, proving the statement.
 
I like Serena said:
Erm... you're using Bézout's identity and its specialized converse here (edit: as Olinguito has just explained).
... but I don't expect the OP to be familiar with those...

And we don't really need those identities.
It suffices to start with: suppose $\gcd(a', b')=e>1$, then...
This leads to a contradiction, proving the statement.

I start the class today
I just stuck my toes in the kiddie pool

oh
bk=text book

anyway MHF has kept me alive:cool:

- - - Updated - - -

steenis said:
Who is 'bk'?

text book
 
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