MHB GCD of a and b: Proving $gcd(a',b')=1$

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$\textsf{Let $d = gcd(a,b)$
If $a=da'$ and $b=db'$,
show that $gcd(a',b')=1$}$
$\textsf{it would follow that then}$
$$d=gcd(da',db')$$
$\textsf{ok I would assume that $a'=1$ and $b'=1$ then}$
$$gcd(1,1)=1$$
$\textit{bk has no answer}$:(
 
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$d=gcd(a,b)$, assuming $d,a,b > 0$
Then there are integers $r$ and $s$ such that $d=ra+sb$

If $a=da'$ and $b=db'$ then $d=rda'+sdb'$
Dividing by d gives: $1=ra'+sb'$

Thus $gcd(a',b')=1$

$d=gcd(a,b)$
$a=da'$ and $b=db'$
If $a'=b'=1$, then $a=b=d$
thus $gcd(d,d)=d$ and $gcd(1,1)=1$

Who is 'bk'?
 
karush said:
$\textsf{Let $d = gcd(a,b)$
If $a=da'$ and $b=db'$,
show that $gcd(a',b')=1$}$
$\textsf{it would follow that then}$
$$d=gcd(da',db')$$
$\textsf{ok I would assume that $a'=1$ and $b'=1$ then}$
$$gcd(1,1)=1$$
$\textit{bk has no answer}$:(

Your book should have this important result:

If $\gcd(a,b)=d$, there exist integers $r,s$ such that $ra+sb=d$.​

Note that the converse is not true: if we can integers $r,s$ such that $ra+sb=d$, we can’t conclude that $d$ is the gcd of $a,b$; all we can say is the the gcd divides $d$. However, if $d=1$, then the converse is also true: in other words,

$a,b$ are relatively prime integers if and only if there exist integers $r,s$ such that $ra+sb=1$.​
 
steenis said:
$d=gcd(a,b)$, assuming $d,a,b > 0$
Then there are integers $r$ and $s$ such that $d=ra+sb$

If $a=da'$ and $b=db'$ then $d=rda'+sdb'$
Dividing by d gives: $1=ra'+sb'$

Thus $gcd(a',b')=1$

Erm... you're using Bézout's identity and its specialized converse here (edit: as Olinguito has just explained).
... but I don't expect the OP to be familiar with those...

And we don't really need those identities.
It suffices to start with: suppose $\gcd(a', b')=e>1$, then...
This leads to a contradiction, proving the statement.
 
I like Serena said:
Erm... you're using Bézout's identity and its specialized converse here (edit: as Olinguito has just explained).
... but I don't expect the OP to be familiar with those...

And we don't really need those identities.
It suffices to start with: suppose $\gcd(a', b')=e>1$, then...
This leads to a contradiction, proving the statement.

I start the class today
I just stuck my toes in the kiddie pool

oh
bk=text book

anyway MHF has kept me alive:cool:

- - - Updated - - -

steenis said:
Who is 'bk'?

text book
 
Thread 'How to define a vector field?'
Hello! In one book I saw that function ##V## of 3 variables ##V_x, V_y, V_z## (vector field in 3D) can be decomposed in a Taylor series without higher-order terms (partial derivative of second power and higher) at point ##(0,0,0)## such way: I think so: higher-order terms can be neglected because partial derivative of second power and higher are equal to 0. Is this true? And how to define vector field correctly for this case? (In the book I found nothing and my attempt was wrong...

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