GCD of a and b: Proving $gcd(a',b')=1$

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that if \(d = \gcd(a, b)\) and \(a = da'\), \(b = db'\), then \(\gcd(a', b') = 1\). The scope includes mathematical reasoning and exploration of properties related to the greatest common divisor.

Discussion Character

  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation

Main Points Raised

  • One participant states that if \(d = \gcd(a, b)\), then there exist integers \(r\) and \(s\) such that \(d = ra + sb\), leading to the conclusion that \(\gcd(a', b') = 1\).
  • Another participant suggests assuming \(a' = 1\) and \(b' = 1\) to show that \(\gcd(1, 1) = 1\), but does not provide a full argument.
  • A later reply mentions that using Bézout's identity and its converse is not necessary, proposing instead to assume \(\gcd(a', b') = e > 1\) to derive a contradiction.
  • There is a clarification that 'bk' refers to a textbook, which some participants find relevant to the discussion.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the necessity of Bézout's identity in the proof, with some suggesting it is essential while others argue it is not needed. The discussion does not reach a consensus on the best approach to the proof.

Contextual Notes

Some assumptions about the positivity of \(d\), \(a\), and \(b\) are made, and there is mention of the limitations of the converse of Bézout's identity. The discussion also highlights the potential for confusion regarding the definitions and implications of the terms used.

karush
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$\textsf{Let $d = gcd(a,b)$
If $a=da'$ and $b=db'$,
show that $gcd(a',b')=1$}$
$\textsf{it would follow that then}$
$$d=gcd(da',db')$$
$\textsf{ok I would assume that $a'=1$ and $b'=1$ then}$
$$gcd(1,1)=1$$
$\textit{bk has no answer}$:(
 
Last edited:
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$d=gcd(a,b)$, assuming $d,a,b > 0$
Then there are integers $r$ and $s$ such that $d=ra+sb$

If $a=da'$ and $b=db'$ then $d=rda'+sdb'$
Dividing by d gives: $1=ra'+sb'$

Thus $gcd(a',b')=1$

$d=gcd(a,b)$
$a=da'$ and $b=db'$
If $a'=b'=1$, then $a=b=d$
thus $gcd(d,d)=d$ and $gcd(1,1)=1$

Who is 'bk'?
 
karush said:
$\textsf{Let $d = gcd(a,b)$
If $a=da'$ and $b=db'$,
show that $gcd(a',b')=1$}$
$\textsf{it would follow that then}$
$$d=gcd(da',db')$$
$\textsf{ok I would assume that $a'=1$ and $b'=1$ then}$
$$gcd(1,1)=1$$
$\textit{bk has no answer}$:(

Your book should have this important result:

If $\gcd(a,b)=d$, there exist integers $r,s$ such that $ra+sb=d$.​

Note that the converse is not true: if we can integers $r,s$ such that $ra+sb=d$, we can’t conclude that $d$ is the gcd of $a,b$; all we can say is the the gcd divides $d$. However, if $d=1$, then the converse is also true: in other words,

$a,b$ are relatively prime integers if and only if there exist integers $r,s$ such that $ra+sb=1$.​
 
steenis said:
$d=gcd(a,b)$, assuming $d,a,b > 0$
Then there are integers $r$ and $s$ such that $d=ra+sb$

If $a=da'$ and $b=db'$ then $d=rda'+sdb'$
Dividing by d gives: $1=ra'+sb'$

Thus $gcd(a',b')=1$

Erm... you're using Bézout's identity and its specialized converse here (edit: as Olinguito has just explained).
... but I don't expect the OP to be familiar with those...

And we don't really need those identities.
It suffices to start with: suppose $\gcd(a', b')=e>1$, then...
This leads to a contradiction, proving the statement.
 
I like Serena said:
Erm... you're using Bézout's identity and its specialized converse here (edit: as Olinguito has just explained).
... but I don't expect the OP to be familiar with those...

And we don't really need those identities.
It suffices to start with: suppose $\gcd(a', b')=e>1$, then...
This leads to a contradiction, proving the statement.

I start the class today
I just stuck my toes in the kiddie pool

oh
bk=text book

anyway MHF has kept me alive:cool:

- - - Updated - - -

steenis said:
Who is 'bk'?

text book
 

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