Geometric series algebra / exponential/ 2 summations

binbagsss
Messages
1,291
Reaction score
12
Homework Statement

I want to show that ## \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} log (1-q^n) = -\sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty}\sum\limits_{m=1}^{\infty} \frac{q^{n.m}}{m} ##, where ##q^{n}=e^{2\pi i n t} ## , ##t## [1] a complex number in the upper plane.

Homework Equations



Only that ## e^{x} = \sum\limits_{m=0}^{\infty} \frac{x^{m}}{m!}## [2]

The Attempt at a Solution



I can see that both series start from ##n,m=1## in the RHS of [1] , so if I use [2] starting from ##m=1## will result in the '1' cancelling as needed i.e. I have ## \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} log (1-q^n) = \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} log (\sum\limits_{m=1}^{\infty} \frac{(2\pi int)^{m}}{m!})##

I don't really no where to go now, I don't see how you can get another expansion in terms of ##q^{m}## from this to give the required ##q^{n.m}##, I can see there's a minus sign too but I'm struggling to use this as a clue as well.

Many thanks in advance.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I am also struggling to show that ## \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} n \frac{q^{n}}{(1-q^n)} = \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} n \sum\limits_{m=1}^{\infty} q^{m.n} ##

I'm guessing it's the same things I'm missing in both cases...many thanks in advance.
 
Unless I'm missing something, isn't this just a matter of Taylor expanding ##\log(1-q^{n})##?
 
  • Like
Likes binbagsss
There are two things I don't understand about this problem. First, when finding the nth root of a number, there should in theory be n solutions. However, the formula produces n+1 roots. Here is how. The first root is simply ##\left(r\right)^{\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)}##. Then you multiply this first root by n additional expressions given by the formula, as you go through k=0,1,...n-1. So you end up with n+1 roots, which cannot be correct. Let me illustrate what I mean. For this...
Back
Top