Gradient (1/r): Homework Equation Solutions

  • Thread starter Thread starter physics12
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Gradient
AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on proving the gradient of the function 1/r, which is expressed as gradient(1/r) = -r(hat) / r^2. The participants explore both spherical and Cartesian coordinates to derive this result, confirming that the gradient can be calculated in either system. Key calculations demonstrate that the gradient in Cartesian coordinates leads to the same conclusion, emphasizing that 1/r decreases as r increases. The conversation highlights the importance of showing effort in homework and understanding the mathematical principles involved. Ultimately, the proof is validated through both coordinate systems, reinforcing the relationship between the gradient and the unit vector in the direction of r.
physics12
Messages
4
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



gradient(1/r) = r(hat) / r^2

Homework Equations


r = (x-x')i + (y-y')j + (z-z')k

[Mentor Note -- Poster was reminded to always show effort on schoolwork questions]
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Physics news on Phys.org
how do you prove that?
 
In spherical coordinates, the gradient of a scalar function f is:
\vec\nabla f(r, \theta, \phi) = \frac{\partial f}{\partial r}\hat r+ \frac{1}{r}\frac{\partial f}{\partial \theta}\hat\theta+ \frac{1}{r \sin\theta}\frac{\partial f}{\partial \phi}\hat\phi.
And we have \frac{d}{dr}\frac 1 r=-\frac{1}{r^2}.
 
can this be done in cartesian coordinates?
 
Or, in Cartesian coordinates,
\frac{1}{r}= \frac{1}{x^2+ y^2+ z^2}= (x^2+ y^2+ z^2)^{-1/2}

\left(\frac{1}{r}\right)_x= -\frac{1}{2}(x^2+ y^2+ z^2)^{-3/2}(2x)= -\frac{rcos(\theta)sin(\phi)}{r^3}= -\frac{1}{r^3} (rcos(\theta)sin(\phi))

\left(\frac{1}{r}\right)_y= -\frac{1}{2}(x^2+ y^2+ z^2)^{-3/2}(2y)= -\frac{rsin(\theta)sin(\phi)}{r^3}= -\frac{1}{r^3} (rsin(\theta)sin(\phi)(

\left(\frac{1}{r}\right)_z= -\frac{1}{2}(x^2+ y^2+ z^2)^{-3/2}(2z)= -\frac{rcos(\phi)}{r^3}= -\frac{1}{r^3} (rcos(\phi))

So that \nabla \frac{1}{r}= -\frac{1}{r^3}\vec{r}= -\frac{1}{r^2}\frac{\vec{r}}{r}= -\frac{1}{r^2}\hat{r}

Where \hat{r} is the unit vector in the direction of \vec{r}.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
but this negative
 
kunu said:
but this negative
Yes it is. 1/r decreases with increasing r.
 
  • Like
Likes scottdave and PhDeezNutz
Sometimes it's easier to work in Cartesian coordinates. For any function ##\Phi(r)## you have
$$\vec{\nabla} \Phi(r)=\Phi'(r) \vec{\nabla} r.$$
Now
$$\vec{\nabla} r= \begin{pmatrix} \partial_1 \\ \partial_2 \\ \partial_3 \end{pmatrix} \sqrt{x_1^2+x_2^2+x_3^2}.$$
The first component thus reads
$$\partial_1 r=2 x_1 \frac{1}{2 \sqrt{x_1^2+x_2^2+x_3^2}}=\frac{x_1}{r}.$$
In the same way you get the other two components, leading to
$$\vec{\nabla} r= \frac{\vec{r}}{r}=\hat{r}.$$
Thus
$$\vec{\nabla} \frac{1}{r} = -\frac{1}{r^2} \hat{r}.$$
 
  • Like
  • Love
Likes MatinSAR and malawi_glenn
Back
Top