- #1
AnthonyAcc
- 5
- 0
Let B={s|s is a function mapping the set of natural numbers to {0,1}}. Is B a countable set-that is, is it possible to find a function [tex]\Phi[/tex]() mapping the set of natural numbers onto B-?
I know that it has to do with infinite binary sequences, but the countability part confuses me. Can someone explain that and give me a first step to answering this?
Thanks
I know that it has to do with infinite binary sequences, but the countability part confuses me. Can someone explain that and give me a first step to answering this?
Thanks