Help with proving that Improper Integral is Divergent

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving the divergence of the improper integral ∫ dx/(x ln x) from 1 to ∞. The initial attempt using u-substitution leads to an incorrect conclusion of 0, as the limit evaluates to ∞ - ∞, which is an indeterminate form. The correct approach involves recognizing that the integral diverges as both limits approach infinity, specifically using the relationship ∫ dx/(x ln x) = ln(ln b) - ln(ln a) as a approaches 1 and b approaches ∞. The Direct Comparison Test is suggested as an alternative method for proving divergence.

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  • Understanding of improper integrals and their convergence/divergence.
  • Familiarity with u-substitution in integral calculus.
  • Knowledge of the Direct Comparison Test for integrals.
  • Concept of indeterminate forms in limits, specifically ∞ - ∞.
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Students and educators in calculus, particularly those focusing on improper integrals, limit evaluations, and convergence tests. This discussion is beneficial for anyone seeking to deepen their understanding of integral calculus and its applications.

student93
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Homework Statement



The problem is attached in this post.

Homework Equations



The problem is attached in this post.

The Attempt at a Solution



Lim t -> ∞ ∫ dx/xlnx from 1 to t

u-substitution:

u=lnx
du=1/x dx

Lim t -> ∞ ∫ 1/u du

Lim t -> ∞ ln u

Lim t -> ∞ ln(lnx) from 1 to t

Lim t -> ∞ ln(lnt) - ln(0)

= ∞ - ∞ = 0 (This is incorrect since the answer is that the integral is divergent).
 

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student93 said:

Homework Statement



The problem is attached in this post.


Homework Equations



The problem is attached in this post.

The Attempt at a Solution



Lim t -> ∞ ∫ dx/xlnx from 1 to t

u-substitution:

u=lnx
du=1/x dx

Lim t -> ∞ ∫ 1/u du

Lim t -> ∞ ln u

Lim t -> ∞ ln(lnx) from 1 to t

Lim t -> ∞ ln(lnt) - ln(0)

= ∞ - ∞ = 0 (This is incorrect since the answer is that the integral is divergent).

##\ln(1) = 0##, not ##\infty##.

Anyway, never, ever use expressions of the form ##\infty - \infty##; these are meaningless and are illegal in mathematics.
 
Last edited:
That's true but it's not ln(1), it's ln(ln(1)) which is ln(0), which is equal to ∞, right?
 
student93 said:
That's true but it's not ln(1), it's ln(ln(1)) which is ln(0), which is equal to ∞, right?

OK, you're right. However, ##\int_a^b dx/(x \ln x) = \ln \ln b - \ln \ln a \to \infty + \infty## as ##a \to 1+## and ##b \to \infty##. As ##a \to 1+##, ##\ln a \to 0+## and so ##\ln \ln a \to -\infty##, or ##-\ln \ln a \to +\infty##.
 
Ray Vickson said:
OK, you're right. However, ##\int_a^b dx/(x \ln x) = \ln \ln b - \ln \ln a \to \infty + \infty## as ##a \to 1+## and ##b \to \infty##. As ##a \to 1+##, ##\ln a \to 0+## and so ##\ln \ln a \to -\infty##, or ##-\ln \ln a \to +\infty##.

Is there another way to prove that this integral is divergent? (For example, would the Direct Comparison Theorem work in this case?)

Also, why is ∞ + ∞ mathematically allowed, if ∞ - ∞ isn't?
 
student93 said:
Is there another way to prove that this integral is divergent? (For example, would the Direct Comparison Theorem work in this case?)

Also, why is ∞ + ∞ mathematically allowed, if ∞ - ∞ isn't?

∞ - ∞ is meaningless (along with 0/0, for example). ∞-∞ can be made equal to anything you want---anything from -∞ to +∞ and everything in between. However, ∞+∞ = +∞ is unambiguous. Think about it and you will understand why.
 
Ray Vickson said:
∞ - ∞ is meaningless (along with 0/0, for example). ∞-∞ can be made equal to anything you want---anything from -∞ to +∞ and everything in between. However, ∞+∞ = +∞ is unambiguous. Think about it and you will understand why.

So ∞-∞ is an Indeterminate Form then right? So can I just L'Hopital's rule to solve for the limit instead of the other method that you showed in your previous post?
 
student93 said:
So ∞-∞ is an Indeterminate Form then right? So can I just L'Hopital's rule to solve for the limit instead of the other method that you showed in your previous post?

So by using L'Hopital's rule, could I take the derivative of ln(lnx) - ln(ln1) and then try solving for the limit etc.?
 
Last edited:
student93 said:
So by using L'Hopital's rule, could I take the derivative of ln(lnx) - ln(ln1) and then try solving for the limit etc.?


You keep missing the point: you do not have an indeterminate form, and do not need anything like l'Hospital's rule. I suggest you look much more carefully at what you are doing, and don't rush. Anyway, I already showed you a correct argument, but for some reason you are just not "getting" it.
 
  • #10
Ray Vickson said:
You keep missing the point: you do not have an indeterminate form, and do not need anything like l'Hospital's rule. I suggest you look much more carefully at what you are doing, and don't rush. Anyway, I already showed you a correct argument, but for some reason you are just not "getting" it.

Ok, I think I now understand your explanation, however would it also be possible to prove this integral is divergent via the Direct Comparison Test? And if it is possible, then how would I prove that the integral is divergent via the Direct Comparison Test?
 

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