Jooolz
- 14
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Hi all,
Let λ>0 and define an equivalence relation on ℝn-{0} by
(x~y) \Leftrightarrow (there is an s\inZ such that λsx=y)
I would like to know what the quotient space ℝn-{0}/~ looks like. I know that it is a set of equivalence classes.
To understand it better I wanted to see how it works for n=1. In that case I found that for all a\in (1, λ] there is an equivalence class [a]. And for b\in (λ, λ2] we have b=rλ where 1< r ≤ λ. But this means that b~r. So b\in[r] and we know that r\in (1, λ]. The same idea holds for elements from the intervals (λi, λi+1]. Hence every element from (1, ∞) will be in an equivalence class which has a representative in (1, λ]. Am I seeing this correct?
But how can I specify the equivalence classes of the rest of the elements of ℝ-{0}? (since λ > 1)
The goal is, (eventually) to show that the quotientspace ℝn-{0}/~ is homeomorphic to S1 x Sn-1.
I would really appreciate any help or hints, to make me understand better what they mean by quotientspace.
Kind regards,
J.
Let λ>0 and define an equivalence relation on ℝn-{0} by
(x~y) \Leftrightarrow (there is an s\inZ such that λsx=y)
I would like to know what the quotient space ℝn-{0}/~ looks like. I know that it is a set of equivalence classes.
To understand it better I wanted to see how it works for n=1. In that case I found that for all a\in (1, λ] there is an equivalence class [a]. And for b\in (λ, λ2] we have b=rλ where 1< r ≤ λ. But this means that b~r. So b\in[r] and we know that r\in (1, λ]. The same idea holds for elements from the intervals (λi, λi+1]. Hence every element from (1, ∞) will be in an equivalence class which has a representative in (1, λ]. Am I seeing this correct?
But how can I specify the equivalence classes of the rest of the elements of ℝ-{0}? (since λ > 1)
The goal is, (eventually) to show that the quotientspace ℝn-{0}/~ is homeomorphic to S1 x Sn-1.
I would really appreciate any help or hints, to make me understand better what they mean by quotientspace.
Kind regards,
J.