- #1
iceblits
- 113
- 0
Integrate(1/(1 + [ tan x ] ^e)) from 0 to pi/2
I don't think there's an anti derivative so some other method has to be used to get an exact answer (no approximation). I've tried using Taylor series and Eulers formula. Any help would be great..maybe if you could just point me in the right direction even...
I don't think there's an anti derivative so some other method has to be used to get an exact answer (no approximation). I've tried using Taylor series and Eulers formula. Any help would be great..maybe if you could just point me in the right direction even...
Last edited: