How Do You Normalize a Wave Function and Verify Its Momentum Space?

Tales Roberto
Messages
6
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Consider the wave packet \psi\left(x\right)=\Psi\left(x,t=0\right) given by \psi=Ce^{\frac{ip_{0}x}{h}-\frac{\left|x\right|}{2\Delta x} where C is a normalization constant:

(a) Normalize \psi\left(x\right) to unity

(b) Obtain the corresponding momentum space wave function \phi\left(p_{x}\right) and verify that it is normalized to unity according to: \int^{\infty}_{-\infty}\left|\phi\left(p_{x}\right)\right|^{2} dp_{x}=1

(c) Suggest a reasonable definition of the width \Delta p_{x} and show that \Delta x \Delta p_{x} \geq h

The Attempt at a Solution



(a) is easy to solve and we find that C=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\Delta x}} assuming that C is real. This way \psi=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\Delta x}}e^{\frac{ip_{0}x}{h}-\frac{\left|x\right|}{2\Delta x}

I attempt to use Fourier Transform to calculate (b):

\phi\left(p_{x}\right)=\left(2\Pi h \right)^{-\frac{1}{2}} \int e^{\frac{-ip_{x}x}{h}} \psi dx

\phi\left(p_{x}\right)=\left(4\Pi h \right\Delta x)^{-\frac{1}{2}} \int e^{\frac{-i\left(p_{x}-p_{0}\right)x}{h}} e^{\frac{-\left|x\right|}{2\Delta x}} dx


\phi\left(p_{x}\right)=\left(4\Pi h \right\Delta x)^{-\frac{1}{2}} \left[\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-\left(\frac{ip}{h}} + \frac{1}{2\Delta x}\right)x} dx + \int_{-\infty}^{0} e^{-\left(\frac{ip}{h} - \frac{1}{2\Delta x}\right)x} dx\right]

where p=p_{x} - p_{0}. To simplify let's write:

\beta_{1}=\left(\frac{ip}{h}} + \frac{1}{2\Delta x}\right) \beta_{2}=\left(\frac{ip}{h} - \frac{1}{2\Delta x}\right)

Then:

\phi\left(p_{x}\right)=\left(4\Pi h \right\Delta x)^{-\frac{1}{2}} \left[\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-\beta_{1}x} dx + \int_{-\infty}^{0} e^{-\beta_{2}x} dx\right]

This integral does not converge since arguments are complex. My "feeling" is that my solution is completely wrong, please help!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
are you sure those integrals don't converge?
 
I calculated the integral, however i anchieved a "weird" result. I think it was wrong, i expected an exp term. Here my result:

\phi\left(p_{x}\right)=-\left(4\Pi h \Delta x\right)^{-\frac{1}{2}}\left[\frac{1}{\frac{ip}{h}+\frac{1}{2\Delta x}}+\frac{1}{\frac{ip}{h}- \frac{1}{2\Delta x}} \right]

I have nothing to do with this, may wrong!
 
i haven't tried it in detail, but it looks reasonable to me... the exponentials disappear when you take the infinite limit

try simplifying, by putting it all over the same denominator, it at least makes sense in that it goes to zero for large |p|

now calculate the magnitude square (worth plotting) to get the momentum probability density function and check if its normalised...
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top