How Do You Solve the Euler-Lagrange Equation for the Surface of a Cone?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around solving the Euler-Lagrange equation for the surface of a cone, specifically using a given metric. The original poster presents a problem involving the relationship between the variables \(\dot{\phi}\) and \(\dot{r}\) derived from the metric.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the derivation of equations related to \(\dot{\phi}\) and \(\dot{r}\), with some questioning the steps taken to arrive at certain expressions. There is an exploration of the implications of the equation \(\frac{d}{dt} (\dot{\phi} r^2 \omega^2) = 0\).

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided insights into the derivation process, with one confirming an understanding of the relationship between \(\dot{\phi}\) and \(r\). The discussion reflects a collaborative effort to clarify the steps involved in solving the equations without reaching a definitive conclusion.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on understanding the derivation of equations rather than directly solving for \(\dot{r}\). The constraints of the problem and the specific forms of the equations are under discussion, with no consensus on the final form of the solution yet established.

gboff21
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Homework Statement


The metric for this surface is ds^2 = dr^2 + r^2\omega^2d\phi^2, where \omega = sin(\theta_0).
Solve the Euler-Lagrange equation for phi to show that \dot{\phi} = \frac{k}{\omega^2r^2}. Then sub back into the metric to get \dot{r}


Homework Equations


L = 1/2 g_{ab} \dot{x}^a \dot{x}^b


The Attempt at a Solution


I've solved it to get \ddot{\phi} + 2\frac{\dot{r}}{r}\dot{\phi} = 0
and
\ddot{r} - r\omega^2\dot{\phi}^2 = 0

So how on Earth do you get that answer?
 
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gboff21 said:
I've solved it to get \ddot{\phi} + 2\frac{\dot{r}}{r}\dot{\phi} = 0

Note how you got this equation. Back up a step where you must have had ##\frac{d}{dt} (\rm { expression}) = 0##

What can you conclude about the expression?
 
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Ok I get it! d/dt (\dot{\phi} r^2 \omega^2)=0. So \dot{\phi} = k/(r^2\omega^2)
Thanks!
 
That's it. Good!
 

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