Feynman's fan
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I'd like to show that if \alpha>\frac{1}{2} then (x^2+y^2)^\alpha is differentiable at (0,0).
The usual way is to show that the partial derivatives are continuous at (0,0).
Yet I am a little confused how to show that 2x\alpha(x^2+y^2)^{\alpha-1} is continuous at (0,0). I have tried working it out by definition, yet it seems to be a mess.
Any hints are very appreciated!
The usual way is to show that the partial derivatives are continuous at (0,0).
Yet I am a little confused how to show that 2x\alpha(x^2+y^2)^{\alpha-1} is continuous at (0,0). I have tried working it out by definition, yet it seems to be a mess.
Any hints are very appreciated!