How to Determine the Fourier Series for f(x)=cos3x

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around determining the Fourier Series for the function f(x) = cos(3x). Participants are exploring the necessary integrals and coefficients involved in the Fourier Series expansion.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to compute the coefficients a0, an, and bn but encounters issues with division by zero when calculating bn for specific values of n. They express uncertainty about whether the function can be represented as a Fourier Series.
  • Another participant questions the original poster's conclusion that a0 and an are zero, suggesting that the integrals for these coefficients may not be evaluated correctly.
  • There is mention of using trigonometric identities to simplify the function instead of performing direct integration.

Discussion Status

Contextual Notes

Participants are discussing the implications of odd and even functions on the integrals involved, as well as the potential need for normalization factors in the Fourier Series coefficients. There is also a recognition of the challenges posed by the specific form of the function being analyzed.

lycraa
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Homework Statement



determine the Fourier Series for f(x)=cos3x

Homework Equations



f(x)=ao/2+(sum) an cos(nx)+ (sum) bncos(nx)

ao= (integral) f(x)dx (from -[tex]\pi[/tex] to[tex]\pi[/tex])

an= (integral) f(x)cos(nx)dx (from -[tex]\pi[/tex] to[tex]\pi[/tex])

bn= (integral) f(x)sin(nx)dx (from -[tex]\pi[/tex] to[tex]\pi[/tex])

The Attempt at a Solution



i worked out that ao and an are both zero, which is fine. however when i go to work out bn i get answers that are divided by (n-1) and (n-3) which means that when i try and find b1 and b3 I'm dividing by zero. i don't know what to do now! can this function be made into a Fourier Series?
 
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have i done the integration wrong here?I feel liek i must have sense i don't really know how i would go about integrating cos3x sin(nx) OR cos3x cos(nx)
 
I don't see how you could get that "a0 and an" are 0. Since [math]cos^3(x)sin(x)[/math] is an odd function, it immediately follows that the integral from [itex]-\pi[/itex] to [itex]\pi[/itex] is 0- that is that [itex]b_n= 0[/itex] for all n.

And, it is easy to show that [itex]a_0= 0[/itex] but
[tex]a_1= \int_{-\pi}^{\pi}cos^4(x)dx[/tex]

Since [itex]cos^2(x)= (1/2)(1+ cos(2x))[/itex], [itex]cos^4(x)= (1/4)(1+ cos(2x))^2=[/itex][itex]1/4+ (1/2)cos(2x)+ (1/4)cos^2(2x))[/itex]
[itex]= 1/4+ (1/2)cos(2x)+ (1/4)(1+ cos(4x))=[/itex][itex](3/4)+ (1/2)cos(2x)+ (1/4)cos(4x)[/itex]

Now, since the integral of cosine is sine and sine is 0 at any integer multiple of [itex]\pi[/itex], those two cosine integrals will be 0 but the integral of 3/4, from [itex]-\pi[/itex] to [itex]\pi[/itex] will be [itex]3\pi/2[/itex], not 0.

By the way, I think you are missing the normalzing factor of [itex]1/(2\pi)[/itex] in front of the integrals. [itex]a_1= (3\pi/2)(1/2\pi)= 3/4[/itex], no 0.

For higher order terms, to integrate3 [itex]cos^3(x)cos(nx)[/itex], with n> 1, you will need to reduce either [itex]cos^3(x)[/itex] or [itex]cos(nx)[/itex].
 
You can avoid doing any integrals by doing as HallsofIvy did for cos4 x and use trig identities to expand cos3 x.
 

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