fargoth said:
use latex already!
anyway, the form should be \frac{Ax+B}{x^2}+\frac{Cx+D}{1-x^2}
its alway a polynom with one order lower...
In fact, you should notice that 1 - x
2 = (1 - x) (1 + x).
So
partial fraction it gives:
\frac{1}{x ^ 2 (1 - x ^ 2)} = \frac{A}{x} + \frac{B}{x ^ 2} + \frac{C}{1 - x} + \frac{D}{1 + x}.
There are several ways to do this:
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The most common way is to multiply both sides by
x2(1 - x2), you'll have:
1 = Ax(1 - x ^ 2) + B(1 - x ^ 2) + Cx ^ 2 (1 + x) + Dx ^ 2 (1 - x).
Now plug some value of x in the RHS of the equation and solvwe for x. You'll need to plug in at least 4 values of x, since there are 4 unknowns (A, B, C, and D). You can choose the value of x such that the RHS become as simple as possible. For example, you can choose x = 0 (A, C, and D will disappear in the RHS), x = 1 (A, B, D will disappear), x = -1 (A, B, C will disappear), and choose a random x (since you'll need 4 values of x) (e.g: x = 2).
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The second way is to notice that the LHS of this equation:
\frac{1}{x ^ 2 (1 - x ^ 2)} = \frac{A}{x} + \frac{B}{x ^ 2} + \frac{C}{1 - x} + \frac{D}{1 + x}
is an
even function, so the RHS must also be an
even function.
That means:
\frac{1}{x ^ 2 (1 - x ^ 2)} = \frac{A}{x} + \frac{B}{x ^ 2} + \frac{C}{1 - x} + \frac{D}{1 + x} = - \frac{A}{x} + \frac{B}{x ^ 2} + \frac{C}{1 + x} + \frac{D}{1 - x}.
That means A = 0, C = D, so you are left with 2 unknowns:
\frac{1}{x ^ 2 (1 - x ^ 2)} = \frac{B}{x ^ 2} + \frac{C}{1 - x} + \frac{C}{1 + x}.Plug in 2 values of x, and solve for B, and C.
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The third way (even faster) is to notice the fact that:
\frac{1}{x ^ 2} + \frac{1}{1 - x ^ 2} = \frac{1 - x ^ 2 + x ^ 2}{x ^ 2 (1 - x ^ 2)} = \frac{1}{x ^ 2 (1 - x ^ 2)}.
So:
\frac{1}{x ^ 2 (1 - x ^ 2)} = \frac{1}{x ^ 2} + \frac{1}{1 - x ^ 2}.
Just do the same for \frac{1}{(1 - x ^ 2)} = \frac{1}{(1 - x) (1 + x)}. Can you go from here?
