How to Simplify Laplace Transformed Op-Amp Circuit Equations?

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The discussion focuses on deriving the transfer function H(s) = V2(s) / V1(s) for an op-amp circuit using Laplace transforms. The user attempts to apply Kirchhoff's Current Law (KCL) at nodes Va and Vb to formulate equations but struggles with simplifying the resulting expressions. They identify a mistake in their second KCL equation, which complicates the cancellation of Va and Vb, leading to a cubic equation in the denominator. The user seeks advice on whether to substitute Va and Vb in terms of V2 and V1 to simplify the equations further. Ultimately, they express the transfer function but express frustration over the complexity of the resulting cubic equation.
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Homework Statement



http://img504.imageshack.us/img504/7714/assn2dn1.jpg
Find H(s) = V2(S) / V1(s)


Homework Equations



Laplace transformed ckt is topologically equivalent to the standard circuit - except all dynamic elements are replaced by either s (L) or 1/s (C) and then treated as resistances. inverse laplce of the solution will give the solution

The Attempt at a Solution


Code:
Laplace transform of the circuit shown above
find H(s) = V2(S) / V1(s)

[B][U]i) KCL @ Va[/U][/B]

(Va - V1 )/ R + VaSC1 + (Va - Vb)/R = 0

or  Va-V1 + RVaSC1 + Va-Vb = 0
or  2Va-V1-Vb +RSC1Va = 0
or  (2+RSC1)Va - Vb = V1 -------------------------(1)

[B][U]ii)KCL @ Vb[/U][/B]

(Vb-Va)/R + (Vb-V2)SC3 + (Vb-V2)SC2 = 0
or   Vb - Va + RSC3(Vb-V2) + R(Vb-V2)SC2 = 0
or   (1 + RSC3 + RSC2)Vb - Va - (RSC3+RSC2)V2 = 0
or   [(1 + RSC3 + RSC2)Vb - Va] / (RSC3+RSC2) = V2 -------------------(2)


divide V2/v1 = H(S)

H(S) = V2(s)/V1(s)
=       [(1 + RSC3 + RSC2)Vb - Va]
        ----------------------------
                   (RSC3+RSC2)
---------------------------------------
                [(2+RSC1)Va - Vb]


=         [(1 + RSC3 + RSC2)Vb - Va]
         ----------------------------
       [(RSC3+RSC2)[(2+RSC1)Va - Vb]

Problem is that I need Va and Vb to cancel for the next three parts of the question where we determine plots etc.

Any help? Should i have substituted Va and Vb with each other and get them in terms of v2/v1 then?
 
Last edited by a moderator:
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i found my mistake in the second KCL equation :

it should be Vb - V2/R
and i'll get another KCL equation at the third node v2 directly above the C2 capacitor.
 
Last edited:
Code:
I think i messed up again - when trying to cancel Va and Vb 
I end up getting a cubic in the denominator and that can't 
be simplified that easily with inv laplace transforms.

So I got
KCL @ Va

    (2 + RSC1)Va - Vb = V1 -----------------------------(1)

KCL @ Vb

    (Vb-Va)/R  +  (Vb-V2)SC3 + (Vb-V2)/R = 0
    or ...
    (2 + RSC3)Vb - Va - (RSC3+1)V2 = 0 ---------------(2)

KCL @ V+

    (V2-Vb ) / R = V2SC2
    or ..
    (1-RSC2)V2 = Vb --------------------------------------(3)

Sub (3) into (2)

    (2 + RSC3)(1-RSC2)V2 - Va - (RSC3 + 1)V2 = 0
    or ..
    [-(RS)^2 . C3C2 - 2(RS)C2 + 1 ] V2 = Va ------------------------(4)

Sub (4),(3) into (1)

    [(2 + RSC1)(-(RS)^2 . C3C2   - 2RSC2 + 1)  - (1-RSC2)]V2 = V1
    V2/V1 = 1 / [(2 + RSC1)(-(RS)^2 . C3C2   - 2RSC2 + 1)  - (1-RSC2)]    or better visually

    V2                              1
    ----   = --------------------------------------------------------------
    V1           (2 + RSC1)(-(RS)^2 . C3C2   - 2RSC2 + 1)  - (1-RSC2)

     
    If i expand the last term i get a cubic. Help :'(
 

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