How to use the Laplace Transform on a DE with a time coefficent

sliperyfrog
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Homework Statement


ty'' + y' = 2t2, y(0) = 0

Homework Equations


laplace(f''(t)) = s2laplace(f(t)) -sf(0) - f'(0)
(-1) (d/ds) (F(s))

The Attempt at a Solution


I know how to solve the problem except for the ty'' part. I tried using the equation and I got -d/ds(s2Y(s) - 0 - f'(0)) which becomes -2sY(s). But this is wrong because it does not lead to the correct answer y = (2/3)t3+c1t2
 
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sliperyfrog said:

Homework Statement


ty'' + y' = 2t2, y(0) = 0

Homework Equations


laplace(f''(t)) = s2laplace(f(t)) -sf(0) - f'(0)
(-1) (d/ds) (F(s))

The Attempt at a Solution


I know how to solve the problem except for the ty'' part. I tried using the equation and I got -d/ds(s2Y(s) - 0 - f'(0)) which becomes -2sY(s). But this is wrong because it does not lead to the correct answer y = (2/3)t3+c1t2

Your equation for ##Y(s)## is a first-order differential equation, since it involves both ##Y(s)## and ##dY(s)/ds##.
 
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So in the problem when I get the dY(s)/ds after using the product rule what am I supposed to do? Is it the same as having the laplace of y'(t)?
 
sliperyfrog said:
I got -d/ds(s2Y(s) - 0 - f'(0)) which becomes -2sY(s).

No. ##\frac d {ds} (s^2Y(s) \ne -2sY(s))##. You need the product rule.

sliperyfrog said:
So in the problem when I get the dY(s)/ds after using the product rule what am I supposed to do? Is it the same as having the LaPlace of y'(t)?

No, it isn't the same as the LaPlace of ##y'(t)##. You already know the LaPlace of that is ##sY(s)-y(0)##. Assuming you do correctly use the product rule, as has already been pointed out to you, you will get a differential equation in ##Y(s)## which you have to solve for ##Y(s)## before you try to take the inverse.
 
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Thanks for the help I got the answer!
 
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