Hypergeometric equation at z = infinity

In summary, by substituting z = \zeta^{-1} and u = \zeta^{\alpha}v(\zeta) into the given differential equation, it can be reduced to \zeta(1-\zeta)\frac{d^{2}v(\zeta)}{d\zeta^{2}} + {\alpha-\beta+1-(2\alpha-\gamma+2)\zeta}\frac{dv(\zeta)}{d\zeta}-\alpha(\alpha-\gamma+1)v(\zeta) = 0. This can be solved using hypergeometric functions and the first solution to the top equation about z=0 is given by u_{1} = 1 +
  • #1
jncarter
49
0

Homework Statement


Show that by letting [itex]z = \zeta^-1 [/itex] and [itex] u = \zeta^{\alpha}v(\zeta)[/itex] that the differential equation,
[itex]z(1-z)\frac{d^{2}u(z)}{d^{2}z}+{\gamma - (\alpha+\beta+1)z}\frac{du(z)}{dz}-\alpha \beta u(z) = 0 [/itex]​
can be reduced to
[itex]\zeta(1-\zeta)\frac{d^{2}v(\zeta)}{d\zeta^{2}} + {\alpha-\beta+1-(2\alpha-\gamma+2)\zeta}\frac{dv(\zeta)}{d\zeta}-\alpha(\alpha-\gamma+1)v(\zeta) = 0[/itex]​
and find the solutions of the first equation about z = ∞ in therms of hypergeometric functions of z.

Homework Equations


The first solution to the top equation about z=0 is given by
[itex] u_{1} = 1 + \Sigma^{\infty}_{n=1}\frac{(\alpha)_{n}(\beta)_{n}}{(\gamma)_{n}n!}z^{n} = F(\alpha,\beta,\beta;z)[/itex]

The Attempt at a Solution


First, I'm trying to find expressions for all of the derivatives.
[itex]z=\zeta^{-1}
dz=-\zeta^{-2}d\zeta
\frac{d\zeta}{dz}=-\zeta^{2}[/itex]
First question, is this the correct expression for d2z? I am concerned that I may have to use the chain rule in some manner that I am missing.
[itex]\frac{d^{2}\zeta}{dz^{2}} = 2\zeta^{-3} [/itex] or [itex]d^{2}z = d(-\zeta^{-2}d\zeta) = 2 \zeta^{-3}d\zeta - \zeta^{-2}d^{2}\zeta[/itex]
which gives some funny expression for [itex]\frac{d^{2}\zeta}{dz^{2}}[/itex]
[itex]\frac{d}{dz}=\frac{d\zeta}{dz}\frac{d}{d\zeta} = -\zeta^{2}\frac{d}{d\zeta}[/itex]
[itex]\frac{d^{2}}{dz^{2}} = \frac{d^{2}\zeta}{dz^{2}}\frac{d^{2}}{d\zeta^{2}} = \frac{\zeta^{3}}{2}\frac{d^{2}}{d\zeta^{2}}[/itex]
Now the next part can be done in a different order, but I have decided to go with a method that seems to be more careful.
[itex]\frac{du}{dz} = \frac{d}{dz}(\zeta^{\alpha}v) [/itex]
[itex] = \frac{d}{dz} \zeta^{\alpha} v+\zeta^{\alpha} \frac{dv}{dz}[/itex]
Now use [itex]\frac{d}{dz}(\zeta^{\alpha}) = \frac{d}{dz}(z^{-\alpha}) = -\alpha \zeta^{\alpha - 1}[/itex] to get
[itex]\frac{du}{dz} = -\alpha \zeta^{\alpha - 1} v + \zeta^{\alpha}\frac{dv}{dz}[/itex]
[itex] = -\alpha \zeta^{\alpha - 1} v - \zeta^{\alpha+2}\frac{dv}{d \zeta}[/itex]
Similarly,
[itex]\frac{d^{2}u}{dz^2} = \frac{d^2}{dz^2}(\zeta^{\alpha})v + 2 \frac{d}{dz}(\zeta^{\alpha}) \frac{dv}{dz} + \zeta^{\alpha} \frac{d^2 v}{dz^2}[/itex]
[itex]= - \alpha (\alpha - 1)\zeta^{\alpha -2} v +2 \alpha \zeta^{\alpha-1} \frac{dv}{d \zeta} +\frac{1}{2} \zeta^{\alpha +3} \frac{d^{2}v}{d \zeta^{2}}[/itex]
I've tried plugging this all in a couple of different times and keep getting weird answers. More specifically, I can't seem to get the [itex]\zeta (1- \zeta)\frac{d^{2}v}{d\zeta^{2}}[/itex]. So I tried finding common factors that I could divide out of the equation. So far, it's been no good. This got me thinking that maybe I had the incorrect expression for the second derivatives. Please take a look at my work and point out any problems. I always find that a fresh pair of eyes is enlightening in these problems. Thanks for any help!
 
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  • #2
Not sure I'm following your work. Here's what I'd do for the first one. If:

[tex]z=\frac{1}{\zeta}\rightarrow \zeta=\frac{1}{z}[/tex]

[tex]u=\zeta^{-\alpha} v(\zeta)[/tex]

then:

[tex]\begin{align}
\frac{du}{dz}&=\frac{du}{d\zeta}\frac{d\zeta}{dz} \\
&=\left(\zeta^{-\alpha}v'-\alpha \zeta^{-\alpha-1}v\right)\left(-\frac{1}{z^2}\right)\\
&=\vdots \\
&=-\frac{1}{\zeta^2}\left(\zeta^{-\alpha}v'-\alpha\zeta^{-\alpha-1}v\right)
\end{align}
[/tex]
 
  • #3
Oops, [itex] u = \zeta^{\alpha}v[/itex].
[itex]\zeta = z^{-1} → d\zeta = -z^{-2}dz=-\zeta^{2} → \frac{d\zeta}{dz}=-\zeta^{2}[/itex]
Note the positive in the [itex]\zeta][/itex], since z has a negative exponent, [itex]\zeta[/itex] has a positive one.
[itex]\frac{du}{dz}=\frac{du}{d\zeta} \frac{d\zeta}{dz} = -\zeta^{2}\frac{d}{d\zeta}(\zeta^{\alpha})[/itex]
[itex]\frac{d}{d\zeta}(\zeta^{\alpha}v) = \alpha \zeta^{\alpha -1}v+\zeta^{\alpha}\frac{dv}{d\zeta}[/itex]
Plus this into [itex]\frac{du}{dz}[/itex] and do some algebra:
[itex]\frac{du}{dz} = -\alpha \zeta^{\alpha -1}v - \zeta^{\alpha+2}\frac{dv}{d\zeta}[/itex]
So I think I had a +1 where there should have been a +1 in the first term. I'm still concerned about the second derivatives. Will reply in a bit once I do some work...
 
  • #4
Okay, new attempt at the second derivative:
[itex]\frac{d^2}{dz^2}(z^{-1})=2z^{-3}=2\zeta^{3}[/itex]
[itex]\frac{d^2}{d\zeta^2}(\zeta^{\alpha}v) = v\frac{d^2}{d\zeta^2}(\zeta^{\alpha}) + \zeta^{\alpha} \frac{d^2v}{d\zeta^2}[/itex]
[itex]\rightarrow = \alpha(\alpha-1)\zeta^{\alpha-2}v+\zeta^{\alpha}\frac{d^2v}{d\zeta^2}[/itex]
[itex]\frac{d^2u}{dz^2} = \frac{d^2u}{d\zeta^2}\frac{d^2\zeta}{dz^2} = 2\zeta^3\frac{d^2}{d\zeta^2}(\zeta^{\alpha}v)[/itex]
[itex]\rightarrow = 2\alpha(\alpha - 1)\zeta^{\alpha +1}v+2 \zeta^{\alpha + 3}\frac{d^2v}{d\zeta^2}[/itex]

Does that look about right?
 
  • #5
If:

[tex]\zeta=1/z\rightarrow \frac{d\zeta}{dz}=-\frac{1}{z^2}=-\zeta^2[/tex]

[tex]u=\zeta^{\alpha}v[/tex]

then I get:
[tex]\begin{align}
\frac{du}{dz}&=\left(\zeta^{\alpha}v'+\alpha \zeta^{\alpha-1}v\right)\frac{d\zeta}{dz}\\
&=\vdots \\
&=\alpha\zeta^{\alpha+1}v-\zeta^{\alpha+2}v'
\end{align}
[/tex]

and then one more time:

[tex]
\begin{align}
\frac{du}{dz}&=\alpha[\left(\zeta^{\alpha+1}v'+(\alpha+1)\zeta^{\alpha}v\right)(-\zeta^2)]-[\left(\zeta^{\alpha+2}v''+(\alpha+2)\zeta^{\alpha+1}v'\right)(-\zeta^2)\\
&=\alpha[-\zeta^{\alpha+3}v'-(\alpha+1)\zeta^{\alpha+2}v]+\zeta^{\alpha+2}v''+(\alpha+2)\zeta^{\alpha+2}v'
\end{align}
[/tex]




. . . ok, I'm struggling with it. Not sure I have it exactly right.
 
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  • #6
jackmell said:
If:

[tex]\zeta=1/z\rightarrow \frac{d\zeta}{dz}=-\frac{1}{z^2}=-\zeta^2[/tex]

[tex]u=\zeta^{\alpha}v[/tex]

then I get:
[tex]\begin{align}
\frac{du}{dz}&=\left(\zeta^{\alpha}v'+\alpha \zeta^{\alpha-1}v\right)\frac{d\zeta}{dz}\\
&=\vdots \\
&=\alpha\zeta^{\alpha+1}v-\zeta^{\alpha+2}v'
\end{align}
[/tex]
You lost a negative sign [itex] \frac{du}{dz} = -\alpha \zeta^{\alpha+1}v- \zeta^{\alpha+2}v'[/itex]
I haven't checked the other part of your work yet.
My last post may also be wrong. I found this formula somewhere
[itex]\frac{d^2}{dx^2}(uv) = \frac{d^2 u}{dx^2}v+2\frac{du}{dx}\frac{dv}{dx}+u\frac{d^2 v}{dx^2}[/itex]
where u=u(x) and v=v(x). I used this in my first post, where [itex]\zeta^{\alpha}[/itex] was the u in the last equation and dx becomes dζ.
With the correction to the powers I found
[itex] \frac{d^2 u}{d\zeta^2}=2 \alpha( \alpha-1) \zeta^{\alpha+1}v+4 \alpha \zeta^{\alpha+2}v'+2 \zeta^{\alpha+3}v''[/itex]
 
  • #7
jncarter said:

Homework Statement


Show that by letting [itex]z = \zeta^-1 [/itex] and [itex] u = \zeta^{\alpha}v(\zeta)[/itex] that the differential equation,
[itex]z(1-z)\frac{d^{2}u(z)}{d^{2}z}+{\gamma - (\alpha+\beta+1)z}\frac{du(z)}{dz}-\alpha \beta u(z) = 0 [/itex]​
can be reduced to
[itex]\zeta(1-\zeta)\frac{d^{2}v(\zeta)}{d\zeta^{2}} + {\alpha-\beta+1-(2\alpha-\gamma+2)\zeta}\frac{dv(\zeta)}{d\zeta}-\alpha(\alpha-\gamma+1)v(\zeta) = 0[/itex]​

I believe your latex caused the equations to be displayed incorrectly. I think they should be:

[tex]z(1-z)\frac{d^{2}u(z)}{d^{2}z}+\big[\gamma - (\alpha+\beta+1)z\big]\frac{du(z)}{dz}-\alpha \beta u(z) = 0 [/tex]

can be reduced to
[tex]\zeta(1-\zeta)\frac{d^{2}v(\zeta)}{d\zeta^{2}} + \big[\alpha-\beta+1-(2\alpha-\gamma+2)\zeta\big]\frac{dv(\zeta)}{d\zeta}-\alpha(\alpha-\gamma+1)v(\zeta) = 0[/tex]

Once that's done then what we're doing above, minus the arithmetic errors, will yield those results I believe. I'm frustrated with all those greek letters in there so I used a,b, c and d and stuff and then just ran it through Mathematica (yeah I know, I'm not proud). When I do that I get for the second derivative (in Mathematica Latex):

[tex]a y^{2+a} v[y]+a^2 y^{2+a} v[y]+2 y^{3+a} v'[y]+2 a y^{3+a} v'[y]+y^{4+a} v''[y][/tex]

where a is alpha and y is zeta. Pretty sure that's correct now because when I substitute everything in the first equation above, I get the second one.. Also checked a reduced version numerically so I think we're good now.
 
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  • #8
You're right about that second equation. That was my bad forgetting parentheses. I also got the chance to talk to my TA yesterday, and you're right about the second derivative. Thanks for all the help. There's just so much algebra with this type of problem, it's easy to lose track of things.
 

1. What is the Hypergeometric equation at z = infinity?

The Hypergeometric equation is a mathematical equation that is used to describe the behavior of a function at a point where the function approaches infinity. This equation is often used in areas such as quantum mechanics, statistical mechanics, and differential equations.

2. How is the Hypergeometric equation at z = infinity different from other equations?

The Hypergeometric equation at z = infinity is different from other equations because it includes a parameter, z, which represents the function's behavior at infinity. This allows for a more accurate description of the function's behavior at this specific point.

3. What is the significance of the Hypergeometric equation at z = infinity?

The Hypergeometric equation at z = infinity is significant because it allows for the analysis of functions at a point where they approach infinity. This is important in many areas of science and mathematics, as it helps to better understand the behavior of functions in extreme cases.

4. How is the Hypergeometric equation at z = infinity used in science?

The Hypergeometric equation at z = infinity is used in various scientific fields, such as physics, chemistry, and engineering. It is used to describe the behavior of functions in extreme cases, where the function approaches infinity. This helps in making accurate predictions and solving complex problems.

5. Can the Hypergeometric equation at z = infinity be solved analytically?

Yes, the Hypergeometric equation at z = infinity can be solved analytically using various mathematical techniques, such as series expansions, contour integrals, and special functions. However, there are also numerical methods available to solve this equation if an analytical solution is not possible.

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